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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver.

      Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 30mg

      Correct Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past 2 weeks. On examination there was a mid-systolic murmur which is best heard at the apex and double apical impulse. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the risk factor which would be most indicative of the potential for sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer: Family history of sudden death

      Correct Answer: Degree of left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy. The degree of left ventricular hypertrophy is strongly associated with sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old male patient, with a history of late onset asthma and heart...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male patient, with a history of late onset asthma and heart failure as well as generalized rash, presents with Bell's palsy. CXR shows multiple soft shadows and blood test reveal an eosinophilia. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?

      Your Answer: P ANCA

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) is a multisystemic disorder, belonging to the small vessel anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-associated vasculitis. It is defined as an eosinophil-rich and necrotizing granulomatous inflammation often involving the respiratory tract, and necrotizing vasculitis predominantly affecting small to medium-sized vessels, associated with asthma and eosinophilia. ANCA (especially pANCA anti-myeloperoxidase) are present in 40-60% of the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old female who was on dexamethasone underwent abdominal surgery. Her blood sugar...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female who was on dexamethasone underwent abdominal surgery. Her blood sugar levels remained around 18 mmol/l during and after the surgery. Which of the following is the most suitable method to control her blood sugar level?

      Your Answer: Remove dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      She has steroid induced hyperglycaemia. She needs satisfactory glycaemic control to avoid post surgical infections. As she is in a stressful event following a major surgery, insulin is the best method to manage her hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      95.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Arrange the following opioid analgesics in order of increasing potency. ...

    Correct

    • Arrange the following opioid analgesics in order of increasing potency.

      Your Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid analgesics produce pain relief by attaching to the opioid receptors in the brain. Out of these, codeine is the least potent and diamorphine the most potent. Codeine is used to relieve mild to moderate pain. Morphine is a stronger analgesic used to treat pain like that experienced after surgery or injury. Oxycodone acts like the endorphins in the brain and reduces pain sensation. It is more potent than codeine and morphine and is used for relieving moderate to severe forms of pain. Among the listed, diamorphine is the most potent opioid analgesic. It is administered intravenously, subcutaneously, or intramuscularly to treat severe pain after surgery or in terminally-ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male presented with a history of bloody and mucoid diarrhoea since...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presented with a history of bloody and mucoid diarrhoea since that morning. He is also complaining of abdominal spasm and bloating. Which of the following investigations is the most suitable one in this case?

      Your Answer: Stool culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      In a case of sudden bloody and mucoid diarrhoea, stool culture and sensitivity are required to access which organism is causing the problem and to discuss appropriate antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding the 3rd heart sound, which one of the following statements is correct?...

    Correct

    • Regarding the 3rd heart sound, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: It may be a normal finding in women up to the age of 50

      Explanation:

      The 3rd heart sound corresponds to early diastolic filling in ventricular relaxation after the closure of the aortic valve. Associated conditions include cardiac failure, constrictive pericarditis and atrial myxomas. It is low pitched and accentuated by inspiration. The 3rd heart sound may arise from ventricular relaxation and it can be seen as a normal finding among children, young adults and women till 50 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?

      Your Answer: Follicular

      Correct Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
      In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22-year-old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?

      Your Answer: Leflunomide

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands.
      On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves.
      What is the underlying pathological process?

      Your Answer: Demyelination

      Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration

      Explanation:

      This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
      Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
      Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
      The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
      Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl.

      On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure.

      Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the third trimester of her second pregnancy.
      The Examination is unremarkable, with a BP of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80. Her BMI is 24 and she has an abdomen consistent with a 31-week pregnancy. The GP decides to check some thyroid function tests.
      Which of the following is considered to be normal?

      Your Answer: Elevated total T4

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, profound changes in thyroid physiology occur to provide sufficient thyroid hormone (TH) to both the mother and foetus. This is particularly important during early pregnancy because the fetal thyroid starts to produce considerable amounts of TH only from approximately 20 weeks of gestation, until which time the foetus heavily depends on the maternal supply of TH. This supply of TH to the foetus, as well as increased concentrations of TH binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin) and degradation of TH by placental type 3 iodothyronine deiodinase, necessitate an increased production of maternal TH. This requires an intact thyroid gland and adequate availability of dietary iodine and is in part mediated by the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a weak agonist of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. As a consequence, serum-free thyroxine (FT4) concentrations increase and TSH concentrations decrease from approximately the eighth week throughout the first half of pregnancy, resulting in different reference intervals for TSH and FT4 compared to the non-pregnant state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks ago. She is currently passing 3-4 loose stools a day which normally contain a small amount of blood. Other than feeling lethargic she remains systemically well with no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy is performed which shows inflammatory changes in the ascending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Bloods show the following:


      Hb: 14.2 g/dl
      Platelets: 323 * 109/l
      WBC: 8.1 * 109/l
      CRP: 22 mg/l

      What is the most appropriate first-line medication to induce remission?

      Your Answer: Rectal aminosalicylate

      Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      Given she is not showing signs of systemic illness, you do not need to treat for an acute flair (which would be steroids), but you need to put her on maintenance medication. Oral ASA would be the best option for this, it is first line. You cannot give rectal ASA because the location of her disease is in the ascending colon and the enema will not reach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). She remains on PPI therapy but continues to have epigastric discomfort. You suspect she has ongoing H. pylori infection and request a urea breath test to investigate this.

      How long would the patient need to stop her PPI therapy before the urea breath test?

      Your Answer: Not at all

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      PPI will affect the accuracy of the test. In general, most recommend discontinuing PPI therapy for 2 weeks prior to a urea breath test. PPI’s have an anti-H. pylori effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old female presented with pain and whitening of the hands on exposure...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female presented with pain and whitening of the hands on exposure to cold. She has difficulty in swallowing solid foods so she has started swallowing only liquids. She developed shortness of breath on exertion and, subsequently, at rest. Which of the following is the most likely cause for dysphagia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in swallowing which improves with liquids is mainly due to an obstructive lesion in oesophagus. But pulmonary involvement (breathlessness on exertion and later on rest) and Raynaud’s phenomena can only be described by systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old lady has been admitted to the stroke ward following a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old lady has been admitted to the stroke ward following a sudden onset of dizziness and visual disturbances, which started yesterday morning. She initially thought she was just dehydrated, however, later realised she was unable to read her own shopping list. On the ward rounds, the consultant examines her and finds she is indeed unable to read. She is, however, able to write. When she writes a sentence it makes perfect sense, although she is again unable to read it out. She has no problems with her speech and is able to converse normally. She has no motor focal neurological deficit. The consultant asks you where the lesion is likely to be?

      Your Answer: Right (non-dominant) parietal lobe

      Correct Answer: Corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with sudden onset of alexia (the inability to read) WITHOUT agraphia (inability to write) which is consistent with lesions of the corpus callosum where there is a disconnect syndrome and the patient’s language and visual centres are actually in tact, but are unable to communicate between hemispheres. In this case, the damage due to the stroke is most likely in the left visual cortex, leaving visual processing to the intact right hemisphere which unfortunately cannot communicate the information to the language centres (Broca and Wernicke’s) in the left hemisphere, hence the alexia. Alternatively, the speech and writing are unaffected as the language centres can still communicate with the primary motor cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now stopped. According to her boyfriend, she has a recent history of mucosal bleeding and has at times been very disorientated. On examination, she has a low-grade fever and appears confused and jaundiced. There is bruising over her legs and arms. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You receive the following blood results from the laboratory:

      Hb: 8.5 g/dL
      Plts: 8 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 4.5 x 10^9/L
      MCV: 92 fL
      Na+: 138 mmol/L
      K+: 4.9 mmol/L
      Urea: 10.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 182 mmol/L
      Her coagulation profile is normal.

      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Plasma exchange

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis for the aforementioned case is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is classically characterised as a pentad of thrombocytopaenia, microvascular haemolysis, fluctuating neurological signs, renal impairment, and fever.

      The differential diagnosis for severe thrombocytopaenia is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). ITP is more common than TTP. However, a patient of ITP would not present with the range of symptoms seen in this scenario.

      In TTP, there is deficiency of a protease which breaks down large multimers of von Willebrand factor. This leads to abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand factor which cause platelets to clump within the vessels.

      Untreated TTP has a mortality rate of up to 90%. Therefore, rapid plasma exchange (PEX) may be a life-saving intervention. Platelet transfusion in TTP is only indicated if there is an ongoing life-threatening bleed. Intravenous methylprednisolone is indicated after treatment with PEX has been completed. There is no current role of intravenous immunoglobulin in the routine management of TTP. However, there have been reports of its successful use in PEX- and steroid-refractory cases. Intravenous argatroban is indicated in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT), but there is no history of recent heparin administration or hospitalisation in this patient nor are the clinical signs consistent with HIT.

      Management options for TTP include PEX as the treatment of choice. Steroids and immunosuppressants are also given. Antibiotics are not recommended as they may worsen the outcome of the disease. For cases resistant to PEX and pharmacologic therapy, vincristine is given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old male presented with exercise related syncope and dyspnoea for 2 weeks....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presented with exercise related syncope and dyspnoea for 2 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40, due to sudden cardiac death. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy with widespread T wave inversions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transthoracic echo

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy which is suggestive by the history, positive family history and ECG findings. Two-dimensional echocardiography is diagnostic for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. In general, a summary of echocardiography findings includes abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LV hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, and partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of the following findings is most consistently seen in PCOS?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cysts on ultrasound

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations.
      His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on extension of the elbow

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed at endoscopy. He has suffered from bouts of abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea although his weight is stable.

      Some of his investigations are outlined below.
      Basal acid secretion 20 mEq/h (1-5)
      Fasting gastrin 200 pg/ml (<100)

      Secretin test:
      Basal gastrin 200 pg/ml
      Post-secretin 500 pg/ml

      Which of the following are responsible for the elevated gastrin levels?

      Your Answer: Gastrinoma

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. The secretin test is a test that can differentiate gastrinoma from other causes of high gastrin levels. Gastrin will rise after secretin injection if the patient has a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 23-year-old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2-3 white blood cells/mm3.
       
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements about smoking is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about smoking is correct?

      Your Answer: Peak nicotine withdrawal time is 7 days

      Correct Answer: Quitting is associated with average weight gain of 2 kg

      Explanation:

      A study conducted showed that the average post smoking cessation weight gain was about 2 kg.
      Withdrawal symptoms usually peak after 1-3 days and then decrease over a period of 3-4 weeks. After this time, the body has expelled most of the nicotine, and the withdrawal effects are mainly psychological.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.

      Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.

      Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Adverse effects:
      Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
      Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
      As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
      Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.

      Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 18-year-old female patient presents with a history of headache and photophobia. You...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old female patient presents with a history of headache and photophobia. You believe that the diagnosis is subarachnoid haemorrhage but your colleague insists on bacterial meningitis. Which of the following would you use to support your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A family history of polycystic renal disease

      Explanation:

      Hypertension could be the result of polycystic renal disease and is a risk factor for subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). What are common in polycystic renal disease are cerebral aneurysms which could rupture if hypertension is present. Both meningitis and SAH can lead to a fluctuating level of consciousness and opiate abuse is not a risk factor for either SAH nor meningitis. Finally, diabetes is not linked with none of the possible diagnoses because hypertension is not a risk factor of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small...

    Correct

    • A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?

      Your Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.

      Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology & Oncology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular System (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal System (3/5) 60%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (3/5) 60%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (1/3) 33%
Renal System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
The Skin (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
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