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  • Question 1 - Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now,...

    Incorrect

    • Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now, he presents to his general physician as it has been the same for the past few weeks.

      A complication is noted in the post-thyroidectomy report regarding an injury to the external laryngeal nerve.

      Which muscle has been affected due to loss of innervation by the damaged nerve, and whose improper functioning can lead to hoarseness in the patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Vocalis

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.

      Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.

      A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      95.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram.

      What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?



      Your Answer: T8

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.

      A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.

      The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
      1. Left gastric
      2. Common hepatic
      3. Splenic arteries

      There are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: Beta

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 2 METs

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      3922.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.

    There are no...

    Correct

    • An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.

      There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.

      The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:

      Your Answer: Superior oblique

      Explanation:

      The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.

      The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
      Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
      Roof – frontal bone
      Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
      Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.

      The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.

      The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.

      The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
      3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
      4th (superior oblique), and
      6th (lateral rectus).

      The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).

      To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be...

    Incorrect

    • Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.

      Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.

      Your Answer: Electrostatic attraction

      Correct Answer: Diffusion

      Explanation:

      Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

      Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
      Red blood cell – 5 µm
      Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
      Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
      Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
      Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

      Sieve:
      The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

      Interception:
      When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
      Diffusion:

      A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
      By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.

      Electrostatic:

      These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

      Impaction due to inertia:

      When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is? ...

    Correct

    • The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is?

      Your Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Incorrect

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer: The output is 2% because the saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.

      Clinical examination is as follows:
      Airway: Patent
      Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
      Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
      Pulse: 125 beats per minute
      BP: 125/96 mmHg
      Disability:
      Glasgow coma score 15
      Anxious and in pain.

      Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.

      Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?

      Your Answer: Left cephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

      Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

      The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
      <750 ml of blood loss
      Minimal tachycardia
      No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
      Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.

      Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
      Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
      Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
      Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
      Minimal systolic pressure changes
      Anxiety, fright or hostility
      Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
      Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
      Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
      Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

      Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
      Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
      Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
      Mental state is markedly depressed
      Skin cold and pale
      Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

      Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

      The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).

      Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The half-empty cylinder weighs 4.44 kg.
    The tare weight of a nitrous...

    Incorrect

    • The half-empty cylinder weighs 4.44 kg.
      The tare weight of a nitrous oxide cylinder is 4 kg.
      The molecular weight of nitrous oxide is 44gm.

      Based on the data, how many litres of nitrous oxide remains in the cylinder for use?

      Your Answer: 112 litres

      Correct Answer: 224 litres

      Explanation:

      The Tare weight of a cylinder is the weight when it is empty. So,

      Weight of cylinder – tare weight = weight of remaining N2O (g).
      4.44 kg – 4 kg = 0.44 kg
      Here,
      0.44 kg of nitrous oxide remains in the cylinder

      Since the molecular weight of nitrous oxide is 44 g and one mole of an ideal gas will occupy a volume of 22.4 litres at STP
      Therefore amount left in the cylinder is several (gN2O/44) x 22.4 litres of N2O.

      (440/44) x 22.4 = 224 litres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Thermocouple works using the potential difference which is created when dissimilar metals are joined

      Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer: The tip of a Miller blade is designed to be placed into the vallecula

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.

      Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.

      Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true except:

      Your Answer: The PNS has nicotinic receptors throughout the system

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?

      Your Answer: Reduces significantly when the mean arterial pressure falls from 110 to 70 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output

      Explanation:

      While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.

      Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.

      Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true? ...

    Correct

    • The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve block is a complication of a cervical plexus block

      Explanation:

      The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.

      It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.

      The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.

      Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:

      Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
      K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
      Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
      HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
      BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
      Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
      Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)

      Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?

      Your Answer: 300-313

      Explanation:

      Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.

      Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:

      Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L

      Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.

      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.

      Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
      Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
      Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)

      The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.

      What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?

      Your Answer: A (atypical)

      Correct Answer: S (silent)

      Explanation:

      Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.

      Other BChE phenotypes are the following:

      Usual (U)
      Atypical (A)
      Fluoride-resistant (F)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took...

    Incorrect

    • A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows:

      Mean Value: 7mmol/L

      Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L

      Sample Size: 9

      Standard Error: 2mmol/L

      For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?

      Your Answer: 5-9 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      Multiply the standard error by 3.

      Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.

      For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.

      For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He is breathing on his own, and a supraglottic airway is being maintained via a circle system with air/oxygen and sevoflurane.

      With a fresh gas flow of 14 L/min, the end-tidal CO2 reading is 8.1 kPa. CO2 pressure is 1.9 kPa. The percentages of oxygen inhaled and exhaled are 38 and 33 percent, respectively.

      What do you think is the most likely source for these readings?

      Your Answer: Exhaustion of soda lime

      Correct Answer: Incompetent expiratory valve

      Explanation:

      The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.

      Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.

      The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.

      Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.

      Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1197.8
      Seconds

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