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  • Question 1 - The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the? ...

    Correct

    • The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?

      Your Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase

      Explanation:

      The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Where does the SA node develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the SA node develop?

      Your Answer: From structures on the left side of the embryo

      Correct Answer: From structures on the right side of the embryo.

      Explanation:

      The SA node develops from the right side of the embryo and the AV node from the left. This is the reason why in adults the right vagus supplies the SA node and the left vagus supplies the AV node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to...

    Correct

    • The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to a muscle is mediated by which sensory organ?

      Your Answer: Golgi tendon organ

      Explanation:

      Both the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon body are proprioceptors. The Golgi tendon reflex is a normal component of the reflex arc of the peripheral nervous system. In a Golgi tendon reflex, skeletal muscle contraction causes the antagonist muscle to simultaneously lengthen and relax. This reflex is also called the inverse myotatic reflex, because it is the inverse of the stretch reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart,...

    Incorrect

    • If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart, the rate will be approximately:

      Your Answer: 50/ min

      Correct Answer: 100/min

      Explanation:

      The normal heart beat is about 70/min. This is due to a predominant parasympathetic activity. If sympathetic activity was unopposed the heart rate would have been 150/min. When both the noradrenergic and cholinergic systems are blocked the heart rate is 100/min. This is the normal firing rate of the SA node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide?

      Your Answer: ß-endorphin

      Explanation:

      ß-endorphin is an endogenous opioid neuropeptide which is mainly synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland, derived from the precursor proopiomelanocortin (POMC). Some studies have shown that immune system cells are also capable of synthesizing ß-endorphin. β-endorphin is thought to exert a tonic inhibitory influence upon GNRH secretion and to be an important regulator of reproductive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Correct

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series...

    Correct

    • At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series of membrane compartments known as:

      Your Answer: Tubulovesicles

      Explanation:

      The gastric H, K-ATPase pump, which pumps gastric acid (HCl), in the resting state is found in cytoplasmic tubular membranes. In the stimulated state this pump moves from the tubulovesicles to the apical membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

      Your Answer: Calmodulin

      Correct Answer: Phospholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Coronary flow is reduced during ...

    Correct

    • Coronary flow is reduced during

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Maximum amount of blood flow in the coronary arteries occur during diastole. When the heart rate increases which is also called tachycardia the duration of diastole decreases. Hence the amount of blood flow to the cardiac muscle also decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA?

      Your Answer: A gene is always read in the 3’-5’ orientation and at 3’ promoter sites.

      Explanation:

      In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes RNA polymerase acts in the 5′-3′ direction and hence the RNA is transcribed in this direction. The mRNA produced is immature as it has introns as well as exons presents. It undergoes a process known as splicing to remove the exons and then interacts with the ribosomes to form proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding short-chain fatty acids, all the following are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding short-chain fatty acids, all the following are true except:

      Your Answer: They are produced in the small intestine but their absorption occurs in the colon

      Explanation:

      Short chain fatty acids (SCFAs) have carbon chains of 2-5 carbon atoms. They are produced in the large intestine and are also absorbed there. They exert a trophic effect on the colonic epithelial layer in absorption of sodium. In the absence of short chain fatty acids there is a loss of sodium and water. Transport of SCFA is coupled with sodium thus absorption leads to the accumulation in the lumen of HCO3, a rise in pH, fall in pCO2 and stimulation of Na+ and water transport. The effect on Na+ transport is thought to indicate the presence of a Na+/H+ exchange in the cell membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to? ...

    Incorrect

    • The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to?

      Your Answer: Increased intracellular c amp

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase in the myocardium

      Explanation:

      Digitalis compounds are potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase. This ion transport system moves sodium ions out of the cell and brings potassium ions into the cell. By inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, cardiac glycosides cause the intracellular sodium concentration to increase. This then leads to an accumulation of intracellular calcium via the Na+/Ca++ exchange system. In the heart, increased intracellular calcium causes more calcium to be released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C, which increases contractility (inotropy).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Neurons that are inactive during quiet breathing, become active when the respiratory drive...

    Correct

    • Neurons that are inactive during quiet breathing, become active when the respiratory drive for increased ventilation becomes greater than normal. These are located in the:

      Your Answer: Ventral respiratory group

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of control of ventilation is an interplay of multiple regions in the brain. Medullary respiratory centre sets the basic rhythm of breathing. The dorsal respiratory group integrates input from the stretch receptors and the chemoreceptors in the periphery and is composed mainly of inspiratory neurons which controls the basic rhythm of breathing. The ventral respiratory group generates breathing rhythm and integrates data coming in to the medulla. It contains both inspiratory and expiratory neurons. They are primarily active in exercise and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - To which protein is T3 mostly bound in the serum? ...

    Correct

    • To which protein is T3 mostly bound in the serum?

      Your Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      In a normal person, approximately 0.03 per cent of the total serum T4, and 0.3 per cent of the total serum T3 are present in free or unbound form. The major serum thyroid hormone-binding proteins are: 1) thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG or thyropexin], 2) transthyretin [TTR or thyroxine-binding prealbumin (TBPA)], and 3) albumin (HAS, human serum albumin). TBG has highest affinity for T4, which is 50-fold higher than that of TTR and 7,000-fold higher that of HSA. As a result TBG binds 75% of serum T4, while TTR and HSA binds only 20% and Albumin 5%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best?

      Your Answer: Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area

      Explanation:

      All answers A, B, C, and D are examples of exogenous infections. Endogenous infection is an infection by organisms that normally reside in the body but have previously been dormant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The ability of the SA node cells to allow ionic flow through channels...

    Correct

    • The ability of the SA node cells to allow ionic flow through channels activated in a hyperpolarized state is known as:

      Your Answer: Pace maker potential

      Explanation:

      Rhythmically discharging cells have a membrane potential that, after each impulse, declines to the firing level. Thus this prepotential or Pacemaker potential triggers the next impulse. The inherent leakiness of the sinus nodal fibers to Na+ and Ca2+ causes their self excitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule, and is treated with a combination of low sodium diet and potassium-sparing diuretic drugs (e.g., amiloride).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?

      Your Answer: 5% dextrose should be started iv

      Correct Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Explanation:
      1. Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
      2. Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.

      The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:

      • Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
      • Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
      • 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
      • Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.16

      Correct Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:Respiratory deficiencyAcute alcohol dependenceHead injuryTreatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s diseaseSevere hepatic impairmentThe dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms. To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given. It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in: ...

    Incorrect

    • The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: Follow the two-hit hypothesis

      Correct Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Dynein proteins transmit polypeptides/proteins in which direction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Dynein proteins transmit polypeptides/proteins in which direction?

      Your Answer: Dynein proteins are not involved in transport

      Correct Answer: From axons terminals to cell body (retrograde)

      Explanation:

      The majority of axonal proteins are synthesised in the cell body and transported along the axons. Microtubules run along the length of the axon and provide tracks for transportation. Kinesin and Dynein are motor proteins that transport proteins and other organelles. Kinesin moves forward or anterograde transport from cell body to axon, whereas Dynein moves retrograde from axon to cell body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:

      Your Answer: Modifications of the central structure results in the resistance to bacterial penicillinase

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding cardiac muscle contractility, the afterload refers to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac muscle contractility, the afterload refers to:

      Your Answer: Cardiac contractile effect of catecholamines

      Correct Answer: The resistance against which blood is expected

      Explanation:

      The afterload for the left ventricle is the aortic pressure. Hence it is this pressure that offers resistance against which the blood is to be expelled from the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance...

    Correct

    • Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance can be present in the lowest concentration before taste buds will respond?

      Your Answer: Strychnine hydrochloride (bitter)

      Explanation:

      The lowest concentration of a gustatory stimulus to which the taste buds respond is considered to be the threshold concentration for that substance. The threshold concentration for strychnine is 0.0001 mm; this is because it allows the body to detect potentially dangerous substances (bitter plant components) at lower concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Monoamines are a class of neurotransmitters that include:

      1. Dopamine: A neurotransmitter involved in reward, motivation, and motor control.
      2. Norepinephrine: A neurotransmitter involved in arousal, attention, and stress responses.
      3. Serotonin: Although not listed in the options, it is another key monoamine involved in mood regulation.

      The other neurotransmitters listed are not monoamines:

      • Acetylcholine: This is a different type of neurotransmitter involved in muscle activation and various brain functions.
      • GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid): This is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glutamate: This is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glycine: An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (3/3) 100%
Medicine (21/29) 72%
Cardiovascular (4/8) 50%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Metabolism (1/2) 50%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Passmed