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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed. Over the next few days, he complains of double vision on walking downstairs and reading. On testing ocular convergence, the left eye faces downward and medially, but the right side does not.Which of the following injured nerves is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Abducens

      Correct Answer: Trochlear

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable nerve injured in this patient would be the trochlear nerve. The trochlear nerve has a relatively long intracranial course, and this makes it vulnerable to injury in head trauma. Head trauma is the most frequent cause of acute fourth nerve palsy. A 4th nerve palsy is the most common cause of vertical diplopia. The diplopia is at its worst when the eye looks medially which it usually does as part of the accommodation reflex when walking downstairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer: Right-shift of the white blood cells

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Folic acid deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Ganciclovir

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 18-year-old teenager is undergoing a thoracoscopic sympathectomy for axillary hyperhidrosis. Which one...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old teenager is undergoing a thoracoscopic sympathectomy for axillary hyperhidrosis. Which one of the following structures is divided to access the sympathetic trunk?

      Your Answer: Intercostal vein

      Correct Answer: Parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic chain lies posterior to the parietal pleura. During a thorascopic sympathectomy, this structure will have to be divided. The intercostal vessels lie posteriorly. They may be damaged with troublesome bleeding but otherwise are best left alone as the deliberate division will not improve surgical access.The sympathetic nervous system:The cell bodies of the preganglionic efferent neurones lie in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoracolumbar regions.The preganglionic efferents leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2. These pass to the sympathetic chain.Lateral branches of the sympathetic chain connect it to every spinal nerve. These postganglionic nerves will pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.Sympathetic chains:These lie on the vertebral column and run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.Clinical correlation:Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves will result in an ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome.For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, the sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. Removal of T1 will cause a Horner’s syndrome and is therefore not performed.In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, lumbar sympathectomy may be performed, either radiologically or (more rarely now) surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted. Care should be taken to preserve the L1 ganglion. If it is removed in male patients, ejaculation may be compromised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more...

    Incorrect

    • A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more than the current standard treatment (95% confidence interval minus 2 to 22).Which of the following statements is most accurate?

      Your Answer: The difference is clinically significant

      Correct Answer: The difference is not statistically significant

      Explanation:

      If the 95% confidence interval contains zero (more precisely, the parameter value specified in the null hypothesis), then the effect will not be significant at the 0.05 level.If the 95% CI for the DIFFERENCE between the 2 groups contains the value 0, this means that the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Conversely, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 0, then the p-value will be strictly less than 0.05. The same applies when comparing groups using a ratio, such as an odds ratio or risk ratio. When using a RATIO instead of a DIFFERENCE, the situation of no difference between the 2 groups will be indicated by a value of 1 instead of 0. If the ratio equals to 1, the 2 groups are equal. Hence, if the 95% CI of the ratio contains the value 1, the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Alternatively, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 1, the p-value is strictly less than 0.05.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet...

    Correct

    • A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision

      Explanation:

      Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and feet, shortly after being unconscious for a while. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infantile spasm

      Explanation:

      Infantile spasm belongs to the spectrum of seizure disorders. Infantile spasm manifests itself with loss of consciousness and jerky movements. The peak age of onset is between 4 and 6 months. Approximately 90% of infantile spasms begin before 12 months of age. It is rare for infantile spasms to begin during the first 2 weeks of life or after 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Median

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising...

    Correct

    • A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal| however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A term baby with a birth weight of 3.6 kg with hypoxic ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 3.6 kg with hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy is intubated and ventilated. Cooling treatment has started. The baby is sedated and paralysed and is being ventilated on the mode continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV). Settings are: targeted tidal volume 14 ml, maximum PIP 25, PEEP 5, rate 60/min, FiO2 0.21. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 100%. Blood gas shows pH 7.47, CO2 2.8 kPa, BE –6.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Decrease rate

      Explanation:

      Ventilatory rates of 40-60 breaths/min should be provided initially, with proportionally fewer assisted breaths provided if the infant’s spontaneous respiratory efforts increase. Although this practice has not been extensively studied, initial inflation of the new-born’s lungs with either slow-rise or square-wave inflation to a pressure of 30-40 cm H2 O for approximately 5 seconds has been reported to result in more rapid formation of Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).At the moment of delivery and first breath, the neonatal lung is converting from a fetal non-aerated status to a neonatal status. The neonatal lung requires gas exchange, and this necessitates the development of FRC with the resorption of lung fluid and the resolution of most of the atelectasis. Therefore, initial slow ventilation with more prolonged inspiratory times may be useful to assist in this task, balanced against the need to avoid inappropriate inspiratory pressures.Flow-controlled, pressure-limited mechanical devices are acceptable for delivering PPV. These mechanical devices control flow and limit pressure and be more consistent than bags. Self-inflating and flow-inflating bags remain a standard of care. Laryngeal mask airways are effective for assisted ventilation when bag-mask ventilation and intubation are unsuccessful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old boy sustained a fracture of his right elbow, which damaged the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustained a fracture of his right elbow, which damaged the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. A month later, he still has a total ulnar nerve paralysis. Which of the following can be observed on examination?

      Your Answer: Marked wasting of the thenar eminence

      Correct Answer: Inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, the inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table is the feature of ulnar nerve injury. Rationale:The ulnar nerve (usually) supplies sensation to the skin of the fifth and the ulnar side of the fourth finger, front and back. Following the injury of the nerve, the following functions are impaired:- There is a sympathetic interruption, with the absence of sweating in the affected area. – The thenar muscles are supplied by the median nerve and are therefore spared. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the muscles of the hypothenar eminence. – Although the ring and little fingers are held in the clawed position when the nerve is injured at the wrist, a high lesion paralyses the long flexors to these two fingers and results in the loss of this sign. The test for paralysis of the palmar interossei, supplied by the ulnar nerve, is the inability to adduct the fingers and thus to be unable to grip a sheet of paper between them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As the surgeon passes a needle into the area to administer a local anaesthetic, the patient experiences a sharp pain.Which of the following pathways conveys pain sensations to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The lateral spinothalamic tracts carry pain and temperature sensations from the peripheries to the central nervous system.Note:The spinothalamic tract transmits impulses from receptors which measure crude touch, pain and temperature. The spinothalamic tract comprises the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts.The former typically transmits pain and temperature while the latter transmits crude touch and pressure. Neurones transmitting these signals will usually ascend by one or two vertebral levels in the Lissauer tract before decussating in the spinal cord itself. Neurones then pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Polio (Sabin)

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given...

    Incorrect

    • In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The chi-square test can be used to compare the proportions

      Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most common position of the appendix? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common position of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Retrocecal

      Explanation:

      The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: A full thickness burn has damaged epidermal sensory neurones

      Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash around her left wrist. Her mother recalls that the rash started to appear after the child started wearing a new bracelet for the past one week. What is this type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer: Type 4

      Explanation:

      According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, the scenario provided is a type 4 (delayed) reaction.These reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and cause contact dermatitis. Nickel, commonly found in cheap jewellery, is a common cause of contact dermatitis.Note:There are two main types of contact dermatitis:- Irritant contact dermatitis: It is a common, non-allergic reaction due to weak acids or alkalis (e.g. detergents). These are often seen on the hands. They present typically with erythema, and rarely, crusting and vesicles.- Allergic contact dermatitis: These are type IV hypersensitivity reactions and are often seen on the head following hair dyes.They typically present as acute weeping eczema which predominately affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Treatment is usually with a potent topical steroid.Other options:- Allergic rhinitis is an example of a type 1 (immediate) reaction. It is an IgE mediated. It is a hypersensitivity to a previously innocuous substance.- Type 2 reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM, which binds to a cell, causing cell death. Goodpasture syndrome is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.- Immune complexes mediate type 3 reactions. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old boy is on the operating table undergoing an appendicectomy.Having incised the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is on the operating table undergoing an appendicectomy.Having incised the external oblique aponeurosis and spilt the underlying muscle along the line of its fibres, the surgeon encounters a tough fibrous structure at the medial edge of the wound.Which of the following will the surgeon encounter on entry into this structure?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique

      Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis

      Explanation:

      The structure in question is the rectus sheath. This sheath encloses the rectus abdominis muscle and thus, will be encountered by the surgeon.Note:- Midline incision: It is the most common approach to the abdomen. The structures divided during this incision are linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum ( with care taken to avoid the falciform ligament above the umbilicus).The bladder can be accessed via an extraperitoneal approach through the space of Retzius.- Paramedian incision: It is an incision that is made parallel to the midline. The structures divided or retracted are anterior rectus sheath, rectus (retracted), posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.- Battle incision: It is similar to a paramedian but the rectus is displaced medially (and thus denervated).- Kocher’s incision: It is an incision made under the right subcostal margin, e.g. cholecystectomy (open).- Lanz incision: It is an incision in the right iliac fossa, e.g. appendicectomy.Gridiron incision: It is an oblique incision centred over the McBurney’s point – usually used for appendicectomy (less cosmetically acceptable than LanzPfannenstiel’s incision: It is a transverse suprapubic incision, primarily used to access pelvic organs.McEvedy’s incision: It is a groin incision used for emergency repair strangulated femoral hernia.Rutherford Morrison incision: It provides an extraperitoneal approach to left or right lower quadrants. It provides excellent access to iliac vessels and is the approach of choice for first-time renal transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      16.7
      Seconds

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