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  • Question 1 - Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Foetal hydrops

      Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome

      Correct Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)

      Explanation:

      The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Exostosis

      Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of hormones?

      Your Answer: Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern.The secretion of cortisol is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus located in the hypothalamus.Other options:- FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are secreted in a pulsatile pattern, i.e. these hormones are secreted in an episodic manner rather than continuously.- Thyroxine is secreted in a continuous pattern, not pulsatile.- The secretion of ACTH is in response to stress.Secondary to stress, the hypothalamus secretes corticotrophin releasing hormones, which are transported to the pituitary gland via the hypophyseal–portal system. ACTH is then released by the pituitary gland and binds to its receptor on the adrenal gland, which releases cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6)sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144)potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9)calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH| also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old boy with iron-deficiency anaemia is found to have numerous polyps in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy with iron-deficiency anaemia is found to have numerous polyps in his jejunum. On examination, he is also noted to have pigmented lesions on his palms and soles. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles.Genetic basis: It follows an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the gene responsible encodes serine-threonine kinase LKB1 or STK11.Classical features of PJS include:- Hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract (mainly small bowel)- Pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles- Intestinal obstruction, e.g. intussusception- Gastrointestinal bleedingThe treatment is mainly conservative unless complications develop.Note:Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia can also be associated with mucocutaneous lesions and iron-deficiency anaemia, but intestinal polyps are not a feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her back. A melanoma is suspected. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Wide excision of the lesion with 1cm margins

      Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Melanoma, a highly malignant tumour arising from melanocytes, is the most common life-threatening dermatological disease. Risk factors include UV radiation exposure, particularly in light-skinned individuals that are easily sunburned, increasing age, family history, and immunosuppression. Lesions that are suspicious for melanoma should be excised with complete margins. Radical excision is not routinely undertaken for diagnostic purposes and therefore if subsequent histopathological assessment determines that the lesion is a melanoma a re-excision of margins may be required.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:- Loeys-Dietz syndrome- Antley-Bixler syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Lujan-Frinz syndrome- Haim-Munk syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Spondylocostal dysostosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with...

    Correct

    • A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals stridor from an oedematous airway, bilateral wheezing and low blood pressure. Which of the following medications would result in the reversal of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) narrows blood vessels and opens airways in the lungs. These effects can reverse severe low blood pressure, wheezing, severe skin itching, hives, and other symptoms of an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?

      Your Answer: A positive family history exists in 5-10% of patients

      Correct Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)

      Explanation:

      Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:

      Your Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood?

      Your Answer: Commonly preceded by a viral infection

      Explanation:

      While the cause for Bell’s palsy is still under debate, it is observed that Bell’s palsy is often preceded by a viral infection. Bell’s Palsy:Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial palsy) is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone palsy. It typically occurs two weeks after viral infection such as Epstein–Barr, herpes simplex, herpes zoster or mumps. A careful assessment may suggest an alternative aetiology for the acute onset of weakness, e.g. acute otitis media, Lyme disease, hypertension. Causes:In childhood, Bell’s palsy is probably a post-infectious (i.e. immune-mediated) phenomenon, while in adults, there is increasing evidence that the majority of cases follow reactivation of previous HSV infection. Management:The prognosis is generally good in childhood with full recovery in the majority. However, permanent weakness is observed in around 5%. Steroids and acyclovir may have some benefit in adults with recent onset of weakness, but the evidence of the treatment benefit is much less convincing in childhood. Exposure keratitis is an important complication and children should be managed with eye drops and taping of the eyelid at night until recovery is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several...

    Incorrect

    • We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several ethnic groups, taking into account differences in the age distributions of the groups.The appropriate analysis is:

      Your Answer: Chi-square

      Correct Answer: Linear regression analysis with age and ethnicity as predictors

      Explanation:

      Linear regression is a basic and commonly used type of predictive analysis. The overall idea of regression is to examine two things: (1) do a set of predictor variables do a good job in predicting an outcome (dependent) variable? (2) Which variables, in particular, are significant predictors of the outcome variable, and in what way do they–indicated by the magnitude and sign of the beta estimates–impact the outcome variable.These regression estimates are used to explain the relationship between one dependent variable and one or more independent variables. Three major uses for regression analysis are (1) determining the strength of predictors, (2) forecasting an effect, and (3) trend forecasting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with no murmurs, 3 cm liver edge, and poor femoral pulses. She is acidotic with elevated lactate. Mum did not attend the antenatal screening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mid-aortic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta may be defined as a constricted aortic segment that comprises localized medial thickening, with some infolding of the medial and superimposed neointimal tissue.The presence of associated defects and aortic arch anomalies, the extent of patency of the ductus arteriosus, the rapidity of the process of closure of the ductus arteriosus, and the level of pulmonary vascular resistance determine the timing of clinical presentation and the severity of symptoms. Young patients may present in the first few weeks of life with poor feeding, tachypnoea, and lethargy and progress to overt CHF and shock. These patients may have appeared well before hospital discharge, and deterioration coincides with closure of the patent ductus arteriosus. Presentation may be abrupt and acute with ductal closure.Neonates may be found to have tachypnoea, tachycardia, and increased work of breathing and may even be moribund with shock. Keys to the diagnosis include blood pressure (BP) discrepancies between the upper and lower extremities and reduced or absent lower extremity pulses to palpation. However, when the infant is in severe heart failure, all pulses are diminished.The murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta may be nonspecific yet is usually a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6 year old child presents with clinical features of nephrotic syndrome and...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with clinical features of nephrotic syndrome and a history of hypertension. He has normal serum cholesterol levels, however, his urine microscopy reveals oval fat bodies. Which of the following most likely represents the cause of the nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis presents with mild or benign urinalysis findings. However, proteinuria together with the presence of oval fat bodies are typical.Minimal change glomerulonephritis (nephropathy) accounts for most cases of childhood nephrotic syndrome and 20–25% of adult nephrotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?

      Your Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium

      Explanation:

      In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?

      Your Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common

      Explanation:

      Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen

      Explanation:

      Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities. Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern, although other inheritance patterns exist. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.

      People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).

      People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.

      Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and healthy. The clinical examination was normal and his mother reported a good appetite. His blood results showed: Hb: 9.0 g/dl (11 – 16 g/dl)MCV: 66fl (76 – 96 fl)WBC : 5x109/L (4 – 11x109/L)Ferritin : 9ug/L (12 – 200ug/L)Serum iron : 7umol/l (14 – 31umol/l)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia has the following laboratory characteristics: low haemoglobin, a low serum iron, a low serum ferritin, a low transferrin saturation, and a high total iron-binding capacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Perform an abdominal x-ray (AXR) and abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50...

    Correct

    • In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: Relative risk=2

      Explanation:

      Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Gigantism

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadism is found to be a feature in gigantism also known as acromegaly, a condition caused by growth hormone abnormalities. The most common cause of gigantism is a pituitary adenoma. Hypogonadism exists among other endocrinopathies found in gigantism. Other causes of hypogonadism include Kleinfelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by premature testicular failure. The other options listed, primary hypothyroidism, teratoma, tuberous sclerosis and hepatoblastoma are all associated with precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic state. What is your immediate management of this case?

      Your Answer: Secure airway

      Explanation:

      ABC : Airway, breathing, circulation is the order of assessment in any patient that is unconscious and apnoeic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: It is non-functional in adults

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Administer oxygen

      Correct Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      97.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Correct

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

      Correct Answer: Conservative treatment

      Explanation:

      Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?

      Your Answer: It presents with the inability to augment cardiac output with exercise

      Correct Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Immediate bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: Call ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      70.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Child-onset polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?

      Your Answer: Barium enema

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      69.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Correct

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them.Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute mastoiditis

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      65.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?

      Your Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P – palpable massP – peristalsisP – projectile vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer: Yolk sac carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus A

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Constitutional short stature

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Leaner disease is associated with which of the given facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Leaner disease is associated with which of the given facts?

      Your Answer: Associated proteinuria can lead to renal failure

      Correct Answer: It is associated with failure to thrive

      Explanation:

      Leiner disease belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders associated with permanent or temporary complement C5 plasma deficiency. It is a rare disease that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission. It is prevalent in female, breast-fed babies. The hallmark of this syndrome is severe diarrhoea, severe generalized seborrheic dermatitis, central nervous system defects, marked wasting, recurrent local and systemic infections, and failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (1/4) 25%
Nephro-urology (5/6) 83%
Musculoskeletal (2/4) 50%
Endocrinology (3/7) 43%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/3) 33%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
ENT (1/3) 33%
Neurology And Neurodisability (3/4) 75%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/4) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Passmed