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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He weights 1000g. What of the following is true?

      Your Answer: He carries a smaller risk of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) than babies with a birthweight of 1800g

      Correct Answer: Visual screening is not useful if carried out at this gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) affects premature infants. It is a retinal vasoproliferative disease for which current screening guidelines are primarily based on birth weight and gestational age. The disease is first detected by screening at 32-38 weeks of gestation or in infants that are about 6-7 weeks old. Screening consists of dilation of the pupils and observing for dilated vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Correct

    • Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Café-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:
      Neurofibromatosis type I
      McCune–Albright syndrome
      Legius syndrome
      Tuberous sclerosis
      Fanconi anaemia
      Idiopathic
      Ataxia-telangiectasia
      Basal cell nevus syndrome
      Benign congenital skin lesion
      Bloom syndrome
      Chediak-Higashi syndrome
      Congenital nevus
      Gaucher disease
      Hunter syndrome
      Maffucci syndrome
      Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
      Noonan syndrome
      Pulmonary Stenosis
      Silver–Russell syndrome
      Watson syndrome
      Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following findings is consistent with autism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?

      Your Answer: Microcephaly

      Correct Answer: Macrocephaly

      Explanation:

      Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after a right sided groin swelling had been noticed. An examination is done and the testes are correctly located but there is a right sided inguinal hernia that is soft and easily reduced. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Surgery once the child is 6 months old

      Correct Answer: Surgery over the next few days

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surgery over the next few daysInguinal hernia is a type of ventral hernia that occurs when an intra-abdominal structure, such as bowel or omentum, protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias do not spontaneously heal and must be surgically repaired because of the ever-present risk of incarceration. Generally, a surgical consultation should be made at the time of diagnosis, and repair (on an elective basis) should be performed very soon after the diagnosis is confirmed.The infant or child with an inguinal hernia generally presents with an obvious bulge at the internal or external ring or within the scrotum. The parents typically provide the history of a visible swelling or bulge, commonly intermittent, in the inguinoscrotal region in boys and inguinolabial region in girls. The swelling may or may not be associated with any pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?

      Your Answer: Inadequate insulin administration

      Correct Answer: Somogyi effect

      Explanation:

      Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following is NOT a requirement to perform imaging studies in this child?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas UTI

      Correct Answer: E.coli UTI

      Explanation:

      E. coli accounts for the majority of UTI’s in children. If this child responds well to treatment and has no recurrence of his symptoms, then no form of imaging is required, as per NICE advice for children aged 6 months to 3 years. Had the child been less than 6 months of age, then a USS at 6 weeks would be necessary.Other options:- Pseudomonas causes atypical UTI. This warrants ultrasonography within the acute illness phase as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Recurrent UTI is defined as two or more episodes of pyelonephritis OR 1 pyelonephritis and one cystitis OR 3 or more cystitis. It requires USS at six weeks and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Septicaemia is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Unwell 48hrs post antibiotics is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as may reflect underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alopecia areata is seen in 6-8.8% of patients with Down syndrome, but only 0.1% of patients with alopecia areata have Down syndrome. The high frequency of alopecia areata in patients with Down syndrome suggests that a genetic linkage for alopecia areata may exist on chromosome 21.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?

      Your Answer: Loin pain

      Correct Answer: Abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass| an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following...

    Incorrect

    • Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila’s condition?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic generalised epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder

      Explanation:

      Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

      Your Answer: It is associated with Hutchinson Teeth and Mulberry Molars

      Correct Answer: Petechiae are due to thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most frequent cause of congenital infection worldwide, with an estimated incidence in developed countries of 0.6–0.7% of all live births.The clinical spectrum of congenital CMV infection varies widely, from the complete absence of signs of infection (asymptomatic infection) to potentially life-threatening disseminated disease. At birth, 85–90% of infected infants are asymptomatic, and 10–15% present with clinical apparent infection (symptomatic disease).The presentation in this latter group is a continuum of disease expression whose more common findings are petechiae, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, microcephaly, and other neurologic signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: 1800ml

      Correct Answer: 600ml

      Explanation:

      In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Partial generalized seizure

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?

      Your Answer: CT Scan

      Correct Answer: Facial X ray

      Explanation:

      The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy. What is her risk of being a carrier for the condition?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 0.66

      Explanation:

      Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease. For the brother to present with the disease, both parents must be carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy the probability that the child would be affected is 1 in 4| the probability that the child would be a carrier is 2 in 4| and the probability that the child would be unaffected is also 1 in 4. Unaffected children have a 2 in 3 chance, or 66%, of becoming a carrier according to the patterns of autosomal recessive inheritance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he turned vegan a year ago. He explains that he takes vitamin B12 supplements every day. Considering iron deficiency anaemia as a possible cause, you order some blood tests to confirm. Which of the following would increase the ability of the body to absorb dietary iron?

      Your Answer: A more alkaline stomach pH

      Correct Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form

      Explanation:

      Consuming iron in its Fe2+ (ferrous form) form can improve the ability to absorb dietary iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia (IDA). Clinical features of IDA include:- Koilonychia- Atrophic glossitis- Post-cricoid webs- Angular stomatitisThe peripheral blood smear shows the following abnormal RBC morphologies:- Target cells- Pencil poikilocytes- Microcytic-hypochromic cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation. What is the most important diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Meckel's scan

      Correct Answer: Upper GI contrast study

      Explanation:

      Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum| instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains significant damage to his frontal lobe.Which of the following would you expect him to have?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's aphasia

      Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomically, the frontal lobe is the largest lobe of the brain lying in front of the central sulcus. It is divided into 3 major areas defined by their anatomy and function. They are the primary motor cortex, the supplemental and premotor cortex, and the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the primary motor, supplemental motor, and premotor areas lead to weakness and impaired execution of motor tasks of the contralateral side. The inferolateral areas of the dominant hemisphere are the expressive language area (Broca area, Brodmann areas 44 and 45), to which damage will result in a non-fluent expressive type of aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Topic acyclovir

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      This clinical picture is typical of chickenpox, which is treated with antihistamines and calamine lotion. In the case of fever, acetaminophen can be used. Generally treatment is purely for symptomatic relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by a worried mother who...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by a worried mother who complains that he's still unable to walk. On observing the child on the ground in a supine position, you notice the following events:First, the child rolled into prone, extended his arms and legs far apart. With the trunk weight resting on the extended arms, he pushed the body backward to shift the weight of the trunk over the extended legs.Realizing what you just observed, which among the following is the most important test you would recommend?

      Your Answer: Creatinine kinase

      Explanation:

      The most important test recommended among the given options is the measurement of creatine kinase levels.The child presents with a gross motor developmental delay, and multiple investigations can be undertaken to confirm the diagnosis. However, the clinching point in the given clinical scenario is the presence of a positive Gower’s sign.Gower’s sign is an excellent screening test for muscle weakness, which is typically observed as an early clinical feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD).Creatinine kinase measurement is an easy and rapid test to aid in the diagnosis. Early diagnosis has significant implications not only for the child but for the family, particularly for genetic counselling. DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder, with an abnormal gene at the X chromosome at the Xp21 locus. It is a progressive degenerative muscular condition where muscle fibres are replaced by fat and fibrosis (i.e., become dystrophic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor feeding, failure to thrive, and developmental delay. He was reluctant to play and was unable to sit independently at ten months. Examination revealed blond hair and pale skin with small hands and feet and a squint. He also has poor central muscle tone and unilaterally undescended testes. What is the probable diagnosis of this infant?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      The physical features and developmental delay are the key aspects in the given scenario. The child in question shows features of gross motor and social developmental delay and has physical features indicative of Prader-Willi syndrome (hypopigmentation, esotropia, disproportionately small hands and feet, loss of central muscle tone and undescended testes). Children with Prader-Willi syndrome can present with failure to thrive until ,12-18 months, at which point, hyperphagia and obesity become more prominent. Other options:- Although Klinefelter syndrome can present with delayed development, undescended/small testes and reduced muscle power, the presence of small hands/feet, hypopigmentation and failure to thrive are not characteristic features. – Marfan syndrome presents with different physical features (arachnodactyly, cardio-respiratory complications and skin changes, amongst others) than those associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. – DiGeorge can manifest with developmental delay, hypotonia and feeding difficulties. However, this clinical scenario does not report any of the typical facial features, hearing abnormalities or cardiac abnormalities that are typically caused by DiGeorge syndrome. – Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental abnormalities, poor muscle tone and power (poor head control and muscle function), feeding difficulties and poor growth during the post-natal period and infancy. However, characteristic facial (small, triangular face, blue sclerae) and skeletal abnormalities (limb asymmetry, finger abnormalities) are not present. Therefore, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Note:Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father: In Prader-Willi syndrome, it is the paternal gene that is deleted from the long arm of chromosome 15, while in Angelman syndrome the maternal gene is deleted. Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to the microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases) maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Cerebral tumour

      Correct Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was...

    Correct

    • A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there is more than one child in a family with gastrointestinal mucosal ulceration

      Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Recurrent blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which is not a variation of lichen planus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not a variation of lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic

      Correct Answer: Sclerotic

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed?

      Your Answer: Saccular: 24-40 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Embryonic: 4-5 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Lung buds are formed by 4-5 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. Adult numbers of airways proximal to acini are in place.- Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what’s the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Incarcerated direct inguinal hernia, emergency surgery

      Correct Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce

      Explanation:

      An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      17.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/5) 40%
Paediatric Surgery (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Nephro-urology (0/2) 0%
Neonatology (1/4) 25%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/3) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/3) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/1) 0%
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