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  • Question 1 - Which is not a variation of lichen planus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not a variation of lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic

      Correct Answer: Sclerotic

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis

      Correct Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema...

    Correct

    • A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
      An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Uses a pincer grasp

      Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth

      Explanation:

      6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Georgie is a bright 3 year old girl whose development seems to be...

    Incorrect

    • Georgie is a bright 3 year old girl whose development seems to be ahead of her preschool classmates. Which of the following should a typical 3 year old be able to do?

      Your Answer: Draw a person with three parts

      Correct Answer: Match 2 colours

      Explanation:

      A 3 year old should be able to match two colours, copy a circle, walk up and down the stairs, and jump up and down. By the time they are 4 they can copy a cross, draw a person with three parts, count to 10, stand on one foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Pulsatile GnRH

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months| progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding bone age? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding bone age?

      Your Answer: The Greulich and Pyle method cannot be used to determine bone age

      Correct Answer: Girl's growth plates close around age 13 to 15 years

      Explanation:

      Bone age is a valuable tool for determining the skeletal maturation in children. An X-ray of the left hand and wrist or knee is used to calculate bone age, which is then compared with the chronological age of the subject to know if the bone age is advanced or delayed. Certain standardized methods are used to score skeletal maturity, the most common methods are the Tanner-Whitehouse (TW) and Greulich-Pyle (GP) methods. The growth plate comprises a resting zone, a proliferative zone, hypertrophic cartilage zone, calcified cartilage zone, and then the ossification zone. This is the zonal distribution from the epiphysis to the diaphysis. After the closure of growth plates, spinal growth still occurs to some extent, adding up to the final height. The growth plates in boys close at around 17 to 19 years of age, while in girls, they close at around 13 to 15 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal pain. On examination, the abdomen is tense and tender but there is no guarding and bowel sounds are audible. Ankle and knee reflexes are absent and there is reduced power distally in his lower limbs. One of his older sisters has previously presented with a similar condition. The lab investigations are as follows: Hb 10 g/dlMean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 flPlatelets: 170Blood film basophilic stipplingUrinary δ-ALA (delta-aminolaevulinic acid): 100 mmol/24 hrs (normal range 8-53)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Arsenic poisoning

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      Lead Poisoning Symptoms: Abdominal pain, bluish line on the gums (Burton line), wrist/foot drop, anaemia, nephropathy, encephalopathy, cognitive impairmentDiagnosis: Detectable in bloodBasophilic stippling of erythrocytes (disorder of heme synthesis) on smearTreatment: Succimer, Dimercaprol, EDTA

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of his friends are now taller than him. He feels that he has not grown as they have. On physical examination, sparse dark coarse hair was observed over the junction of the pubes. He reports having noticed some enlargement of his penis and growth of his testis. His testicular volume was measured to be 8 ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature adrenarche

      Correct Answer: Normal puberty

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the boy is going through normal pubertal changes.In the 3 years before puberty, low pulsatile LH levels become detectable during sleep. LH and FSH are produced in the anterior pituitary and released due to pulsatile gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by the hypothalamus. There is an increase in the amplitude and frequency of LH secretion as puberty approaches, which causes enlargement of the gonads. In boys, the testicles produce testosterone, and in girls, the ovaries produce oestradiol and ovarian androgens, which, with the adrenal androgens, produce secondary sexual characteristics.Note:The average age at onset of puberty is 11 years in girls. The first sign is breast bud development, followed by the appearance of pubic hair 6–12 months later. Menarche usually occurs 2–2.5 years after breast bud development. Peak height velocity in girls occurs at breast stage 2–3 and virtually always precedes menarche. The onset of puberty in boys is at 11.5 years. The first sign is testicular enlargement (>3 ml) and thinning of the scrotum. This is followed by the pigmentation of the scrotum and growth of the penis, and pubic hair follows. Peak height velocity (growth spurt) is two years later in boys than in girls and occurs at testicular stage 4–5 (i.e. testicular volume 10–12 ml), which is around 13–14 years of age. Breast enlargement occurs in 40–60% of boys (rarely, significant enough to cause social embarrassment in 10%) and is a result of oestradiol produced by the metabolism of testosterone. It usually resolves within three years. During puberty, elongation of the eye often occurs, causing short-sightedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6 year old child underwent an emergency splenectomy following trauma. After full...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child underwent an emergency splenectomy following trauma. After full recovery he is dismissed from the hospital and returns home. On re-examination, eight weeks later, the GP performs a full blood count with a film. What would you expect to see?

      Your Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      Howell-Jolly bodies are often seen in post-splenectomy cases, together with Pappenheimer bodies, target cells and irregular contracted red blood cells. The loss of splenic tissue results in the inability to readily remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Infants are usually large for dates

      Correct Answer: Fetal loss in the first trimester is common

      Explanation:

      Turners syndrome is a chromosomal syndrome affecting the development of females. In this condition, all or part of the X chromosome gets deleted, producing the Karyotype 45 XO or 45XO/46XX. Spontaneous foetal loss is common in the first trimester, but foetuses which survive are born small for date, and may have lymphedema, and poor feeding in the neonatal period. These patients face numerous medical and developmental problems throughout their lifetimes including growth and puberty failure due to premature ovarian failure/ hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. However spontaneous puberty can be seen in up to 20% of females with Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer: Respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: Pin point pupils

      Explanation:

      Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old boy presents with a low-grade fever and mild abdominal pain. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with a low-grade fever and mild abdominal pain. On examination, a palpable mass was felt in the right iliac fossa.His temperature is about 38.4℃, and his CRP is elevated to 256. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen demonstrated an appendicular mass.What is the most appropriate management strategy for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics, admit to the ward, perform operation only if signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis

      Explanation:

      An appendicular mass, on the whole, is managed medically with intravenous antibiotics and monitoring for signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis. If the child is not responding to medical management, then surgery is performed. This is due to the high morbidity risk associated with operating on an appendicular mass. Consent for a limited right hemi-colectomy must be taken after explaining the increased risk of complications. The decision whether or not to perform an interval appendicectomy is controversial and currently subject to a multicentre national trial. The likelihood of another episode of appendicitis is 1 in 5. Other options:- Ultrasound and clinical examination is sufficient to confirm the diagnosis, especially in a boy. This may not be the case in females.- Majority of appendicular masses respond to conservative management. – Raised CRP indicates significant inflammatory response and thus intravenous antibiotics are indicated. – Intravenous antibiotics are indicated due to sepsis. Oral antibiotics are not sufficient to tackle sepsis in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 +...

    Incorrect

    • This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 + (1.5 × height), R = 0.75Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taller individuals have higher lung functions

      Explanation:

      The equation, lung function = 3.2 + (1.7 x height) is linear, but this does not necessarily mean that the relationship itself is linear. The equation is able to predict that taller individuals are more likely to have greater lung functions. No information is given on whether the coefficients and the R value are statistically significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 19 - What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      The anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to the IgM class of immunoglobulins.Note:IgM is the largest antibody formed of 5 antibodies attached together. This functions to agglutinate or clump antigens. The associated anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM produced in the first years of life by sensitisation to environmental substances such as food, bacteria, and viruses.Other options:- IgG is the most common antibody. It is a single antibody complex.- IgD is found on the surface of B-lymphocytes.- IgE is bound to tissue cells, especially mast cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 20 - Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.Other options:- Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.- Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.- Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 22 - A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has noticed that the boy has become tired quicker than normal for the past two months. She also noticed a reduction in the boy's appetite. He no longer enjoys football and often complains of aches and pains. He has a faint rash on his arms and has to 'climb up' his legs to get up from a supine position.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and way the boy ‘climbs up’ his legs to get up from a supine position (Gowers’ sign) suggests proximal muscle weakness secondary to dermatomyositis.Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that typically presents between the ages of five years and ten years. The onset is insidious, and the proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase might be mistaken for muscular dystrophy. However, the systemic illness and rash are characteristic features of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 25 - A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)

      Explanation:

      The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 26 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed. Over the next few days, he complains of double vision on walking downstairs and reading. On testing ocular convergence, the left eye faces downward and medially, but the right side does not.Which of the following injured nerves is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlear

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable nerve injured in this patient would be the trochlear nerve. The trochlear nerve has a relatively long intracranial course, and this makes it vulnerable to injury in head trauma. Head trauma is the most frequent cause of acute fourth nerve palsy. A 4th nerve palsy is the most common cause of vertical diplopia. The diplopia is at its worst when the eye looks medially which it usually does as part of the accommodation reflex when walking downstairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal weight gain is maximum during mid-pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Teenagers may have poor eating habits and neglect to take their vitamin supplements. They are less likely than older women to be of adequate pre-pregnancy weight or to gain an adequate amount of weight during pregnancy. Low weight gain increases the risk of having a low birthweight baby. Weight gain is maximal during the 2nd trimester.aPTT and gallbladder emptying is decreased during pregnancy whereas d-dimers is increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 29 - A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal pain and an ileo-ileal intussusception is found on investigation. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undertake a laparotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Undertake a laparotomyIntussusception, which is defined as the telescoping or invagination of a proximal portion of intestine (intussusceptum) into a more distal portion (intussuscipiens), is one of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in infants and toddlers.Intussusception may be ileoileal, colocolic, ileoileocolic, or ileocolic (the most common type).Most infants with intussusception have a history of intermittent severe cramping or colicky abdominal pain, occurring every 5-30 minutes. During these attacks, the infant screams and flexes at the waist, draws the legs up to the abdomen, and may appear pale. These episodes may last for only a few seconds and are separated by periods of calm normal appearance and activity. However, some infants become quite lethargic and somnolent between attacks.Infants with intussusception require surgical correction. Prompt laparotomy following diagnosis is crucial for achieving better outcomes. Primary anastomosis can be performed successfully, and stomas can be created in the critically ill patients or those with late detection and septicaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 30 - A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with distended neck veins and a displaced trachea. What is the next appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocenthesis

      Explanation:

      The patient history suggests a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which is a life-threatening situation in which excess air is introduced into the pleural space surrounding the lung. When there is a significant amount of air trapped in the pleural cavity, the increasing pressure from this abnormal air causes the lung to shrink and collapse, leading to respiratory distress. This pressure also pushes the mediastinum (including the heart and great vessels) away from its central position, e.g. deviated trachea, and diminishing the cardiac output. Tension pneumothoraxes cause chest pain, extreme shortness of breath, respiratory failure, hypoxia, tachycardia, and hypotension. These are definitively managed by insertion of a chest tube. However, in the emergency setting temporizing measures are needed while chest tube materials are being gathered. In these situations, urgent needle thoracostomy (also called needle decompression) is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Child Development (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (0/3) 0%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
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