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  • Question 1 - Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic precocious puberty with arachnoid cyst

      Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.Other options:- Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.- Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.- Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      315.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?

      Your Answer: They should wait until his blood sugar is at least 8 mmol/L before he can go to bed

      Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future

      Explanation:

      The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      998.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer: 11 years

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      127.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: The pituitary stalk connects the anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: The majority of hormone production occurs in the pars distalis

      Explanation:

      The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases various hormones that affect several organs throughout the body.The pituitary gland is entirely ectodermal in origin but is composed of 2 functionally distinct structures that differ in embryologic development and anatomy: the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) and the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).The anterior pituitary has three main regions:Pars distalis: Where the main hormone production occursPars tuberalis: Joins the pituitary stalk arising from the posterior pituitary glandPars intermedia: Divides the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary gland. The pars distalis forms the majority of the adenohypophysis and resembles a typical endocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      39.5
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  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      998.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?

      Your Answer: Decreases glucose absorption

      Correct Answer: Increases insulin production

      Explanation:

      Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      271.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhea is defined as the total absence of menarche in a girl of 14 years of age if the secondary sexual characteristics are also absent or in a girl of 16 years of age in whom normal secondary sexual characteristics are present. There are multiple causes of primary amenorrhea, but the most common are constitutional delay, imperforate hymen, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypothalamic failure, and testicular feminization. Cushing’s syndrome leads to secondary amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for 6 consecutive cycles in a girl who has achieved menarche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      40.8
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Other options:- While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen. – Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum. – The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin pump. There has been better glycaemic control and he now subsequently enjoys a healthy, active lifestyle. During the consultation, he seems to acknowledge the risks of missing out his dose and says that he is comfortable with his new pump. he mentions that he changes his site after every 4 days. However, a random blood sugar analysis reveals it to be 22.3 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the raised RBS level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Site change is overdue

      Explanation:

      Insertion sites and sensor sites should be rotated each time the infusion set or glucose sensor is changed. This keeps the tissue healthy and allows previous sites to completely heal before reusing them. Change infusion set every 2 to 3 days to help prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with abdominal pain and vomiting. Arterial blood gases show:pH 7.01, pC02: 2.6, HC03:6, BE-19. The ketones are found to be 4.8. Which of the following most likely explains her blood gas analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      Diabetes ketoacidosis is one of the most serious and acute complications of diabetes. At the time of presentation and during treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), several metabolic and electrolyte derangements can ultimately result in respiratory compromise. Most commonly, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia can eventually lead to respiratory muscles failure. Furthermore, tachypnoea, hyperpnea and more severely, Kussmaul breathing pattern can develop. Also, hydrostatic and non-hydrostatic pulmonary oedema can occur secondary to volume shifts into the extracellular space and secondary to increased permeability of the pulmonary capillaries. The presence of respiratory failure in patients with DKA is associated with higher morbidity and mortality. Being familiar with the causes of respiratory compromise in DKA, and how to treat them, may represent better outcomes for patients with DKA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal–bolus regimen

      Explanation:

      In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child may have stopped growing. Which of the following hormones is chiefly responsible for cessation of growth and epiphyseal fusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Many factors are related with the stimulation of bone formation and growth, the pubertal growth spurt, epiphyseal senescence, and fusion, including nutritional, cellular, paracrine, and endocrine factors. An important cellular factor in these processes is the differentiation and aging of chondrocytes in the growth plate. Important paracrine factors include the many molecular pathways involved in chondrocyte differentiation, vascularization, and ossification. Oestrogen and the GH-IGF-I axis are important endocrine factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the anatomy and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the anatomy and embryology of the thyroid gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the follicular cells are C cells

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is one of the first endocrine glands to develop, and is formed from the endoderm of the epithelial tissue of the primitive pharynx. The mature gland is functionally made up of follicles with colloid which contain the pro hormone thyroglobulin. Thyroid hormone is synthesised at a cellular level and is stored as thyroglobulin, before its release as thyroid hormone, a major modulator of metabolism. In between the follicular cells are parafollicular, or C-cells which secrete parathyroid hormone or calcitonin which are responsible for calcium regulation in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast-bud development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gigantism

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadism is found to be a feature in gigantism also known as acromegaly, a condition caused by growth hormone abnormalities. The most common cause of gigantism is a pituitary adenoma. Hypogonadism exists among other endocrinopathies found in gigantism. Other causes of hypogonadism include Kleinfelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by premature testicular failure. The other options listed, primary hypothyroidism, teratoma, tuberous sclerosis and hepatoblastoma are all associated with precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is the most likely aetiology for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. Central precocious puberty is mostly idiopathic, but other causes include congenital or prolonged, untreated hypothyroidism, congenital or acquired central nervous system pathologies, and several genetic syndromes like Silver-Russell syndrome. The other mentioned choices cause peripheral or false precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit

      Explanation:

      The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.Dawn phenomenon:This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:- Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.- Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.- Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.- Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with primary amenorrhoea and poor pubertal development. Investigations reveal low oestrogen, and high LH and FSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age

      Explanation:

      A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delta cells

      Explanation:

      The normal human pancreas contains about 1,000,000 islets. The islets consist of four distinct cell types, of which three (alpha, beta, and delta cells) produce important hormones| the fourth component (C cells) has no known function.The most common islet cell, the beta cell, produces insulin.The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon.The delta cells produce somatostatin, a strong inhibitor of somatotropin, insulin, and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Di-George syndrome

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:- Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.- Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.- Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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Endocrinology (1/8) 13%
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