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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old individual ingests LSD at a social gathering and begins to perceive...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual ingests LSD at a social gathering and begins to perceive their feet and hands as twisted and distorted. What type of body image distortion are they experiencing?

      Your Answer: Hyperschemazia

      Correct Answer: Paraschemazia

      Explanation:

      Paraschemazia is a type of body image distortion that involves a feeling that certain body parts are twisted, distorted, of separated from the rest of the body. This can be caused by various factors, including hallucinogenic drug use, epileptic aura, and migraine. Body image distortions can be caused by both organic and psychiatric conditions. Organic causes may include Brown-Séquard paralysis, epileptic aura, and migraine, while psychiatric causes may include anorexia nervosa, hypochondriasis, depersonalization, and conversion disorders. Hemiasomatognosia is a specific type of body image distortion where the person feels that one half of their body is missing, and it can occur in epileptic aura and migraine. Other types of body image distortions include hyperschemazia, where parts of the body feel magnified in size, and hyposchemazia, where parts of the body feel diminished in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which disorder is more frequently identified in individuals from higher socioeconomic backgrounds? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which disorder is more frequently identified in individuals from higher socioeconomic backgrounds?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Correct Answer: Bipolar affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals from higher social classes are more likely to be diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder and eating disorders, while those from lower social classes are more commonly diagnosed with alcohol dependence, depression, schizophrenia, and substance misuse disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a healthcare provider, what tests should be conducted before starting agomelatine in...

    Correct

    • As a healthcare provider, what tests should be conducted before starting agomelatine in a patient with depression? Additionally, what follow-up assessments should be performed at regular intervals.

      Your Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      To avoid potential liver damage, it is recommended to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) before starting agomelatine and periodically at 3, 6, 12, and 24 weeks after beginning treatment. If serum transaminases levels exceed three times the upper normal limit of if symptoms of liver disorder arise, agomelatine treatment should be discontinued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement about drug distribution in the elderly is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about drug distribution in the elderly is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Water soluble drugs show increased volumes of distribution in the elderly

      Explanation:

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - How would you describe the condition of a patient who, after experiencing a...

    Correct

    • How would you describe the condition of a patient who, after experiencing a stroke, is unable to identify familiar objects despite having no sensory impairment?

      Your Answer: Visual agnosia

      Explanation:

      Visual Agnosia: Inability to Recognize Familiar Objects

      Visual agnosia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to recognize familiar objects, even though their sensory apparatus is functioning normally. This disorder can be further classified into different subtypes, with two of the most important being prosopagnosia and simultanagnosia.

      Prosopagnosia is the inability to identify faces, which can make it difficult for individuals to recognize family members, friends, of even themselves in a mirror. Simultanagnosia, on the other hand, is the inability to recognize a whole image, even though individual details may be recognized. This can make it challenging for individuals to understand complex scenes of navigate their environment.

      Visual agnosia can be caused by various factors, including brain damage from injury of disease. Treatment options for this condition are limited, but some individuals may benefit from visual aids of cognitive therapy to improve their ability to recognize objects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What type of tremor is commonly observed as a result of extended lithium...

    Incorrect

    • What type of tremor is commonly observed as a result of extended lithium usage?

      Your Answer: Parkinsonian tremor

      Correct Answer: Physiologic tremor

      Explanation:

      It is important to differentiate between the types of tremors seen in lithium toxicity and long-term lithium use. Coarse, intention tremor is associated with lithium toxicity, while fine, physiological tremor is seen in long-term lithium use. Remembering this distinction can help avoid confusion when assessing patients on lithium therapy.

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year old woman is brought to the outpatient clinic by her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old woman is brought to the outpatient clinic by her sister who is concerned about her. She reports concern that she has no friends and that even her contact with her family is minimal and superficial. She reports that she has been this way all her life. She is concerned that this is now affecting her ability to work and leave home.
      The woman engages to a limited extent with the interview. She explains that she does not enjoy social contact and avoids socialising where possible, this also includes avoiding the workplace in view of the social demands. She is avoidant of eye contact but is able to maintain reasonable reciprocal conversation. There is no evidence of restrictive of repetitive behaviours.
      You note on interview that she appears aloof and lacking in any emotional expression.
      Which ICD-11 condition is most likely to be present according to this history and assessment?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Personality disorder with detachment

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that there is no indication of impaired reciprocal interaction of restrictive/repetitive behaviors, which would not support a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, Asperger’s and infantile autism are no longer recognized as diagnoses in the ICD-11. Based on the presented case, it appears that the individual may have a personality disorder with detachment, which requires evidence of long standing interpersonal dysfunction and social/emotional distance. It is important to note that while this may share similarities with avoidant personality disorder in the DSM-5, it is not the same diagnosis.

      Personality Disorder: Avoidant

      Avoidant Personality Disorder (AVPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. According to the DSM-5, individuals with AVPD exhibit at least four of the following symptoms: avoidance of occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked, restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with being criticized of rejected in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as inept and inferior to others, and reluctance to take personal risks of engage in new activities due to potential embarrassment.

      In contrast, the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for AVPD but instead uses the qualifier of detachment trait. The Detachment trait domain is characterized by a tendency to maintain interpersonal and emotional distance. Common manifestations of Detachment include social detachment (avoidance of social interactions, lack of friendships, and avoidance of intimacy) and emotional detachment (reserve, aloofness, and limited emotional expression and experience). It is important to note that not all individuals with Detachment will exhibit all of these symptoms at all times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What ethical perspective are both teenagers employing when discussing the potential impact of...

    Correct

    • What ethical perspective are both teenagers employing when discussing the potential impact of assisting a patient in dying on the public's trust in doctors?

      Your Answer: Utilitarian

      Explanation:

      The two main ethical approaches in philosophy are teleological ethics, which focuses on the end result, and deontological ethics, which focuses on an individual’s actions being morally right regardless of the end result. In medicine, deontology is patient-centered, while utilitarianism is society-centered. Deontological ethics judges the moral status of actions according to rules of principles, such as the duty not to harm the patient versus the duty to help them. Kantian ethics is a strict form of deontological ethics that emphasizes behaving as though one’s behavior is creating a universal ethical rule. Utilitarianism is a teleological approach that prioritizes the action that leads to the greatest happiness of the greatest number, regardless of how it is brought about. In medicine, autonomy is one of four ethical principles, along with beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, that enable patients to choose their own treatment and ensure fairness and equality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most efficient screening tool for identifying harmful alcohol consumption and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most efficient screening tool for identifying harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer: CAGE questionnaire

      Correct Answer: AUDIT questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is not a requirement for a characteristic to be...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a requirement for a characteristic to be considered an endophenotype?

      Your Answer: An endophenotype must not be present during remission

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endophenotypes in Psychiatry

      Endophenotypes are measurable components that are not visible to the naked eye, but are present along the pathway between disease and distal genotype. These components may be neurophysiological, biochemical, endocrinological, neuroanatomical, cognitive, of neuropsychological. They provide simpler clues to genetic underpinnings than the disease syndrome itself, making genetic analysis more straightforward and successful.

      Endophenotypes are important in biological psychiatry research as they specifically require heritability and state independence. They must segregate with illness in the general population, be heritable, manifest whether illness is present of in remission, cosegregate with the disorder within families, be present at a higher rate within affected families than in the general population, and be a characteristic that can be measured reliably and is specific to the illness of interest.

      Understanding endophenotypes is crucial in delineating the pathophysiology of mental illness, as genes are the biological bedrock of these disorders. By identifying and measuring endophenotypes, researchers can gain insight into the underlying genetic causes of mental illness and develop more effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering...

    Correct

    • A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering her 4 year old daughter. The woman has a background of schizophrenia. She confesses to the psychiatrist that she committed the crime and provides a detailed description of the event. The psychiatrist observes that although she appeared somewhat disturbed by her recollection of the incident, her level of disturbance was significantly lower than anticipated. What does this imply?

      Your Answer: Blunt affect

      Explanation:

      The women’s affect is not flat as she displays some emotions, but they seem to be blunted and less intense than anticipated. However, her emotions are appropriate and in line with the situation, indicating that they are not incongruous.

      Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect

      Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      44.4
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  • Question 12 - Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin, lithium, and topiramate require minimal of no hepatic metabolism, allowing them to be excreted without undergoing significant liver alteration.

      Drug Clearance: Understanding the Rate of Drug Removal from the Body

      Drug clearance refers to the efficiency of drug removal from the plasma, and is measured as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specific time period. The unit of measurement for drug clearance is volume per time. Clearance of a drug involves both metabolism and excretion. When drug intake equals clearance, it is referred to as a steady state, which is usually achieved by 4.5 half-lives. The time taken to reach steady state depends on the half-life of the drug.

      There are two main types of clearance: hepatic and renal. Hepatic clearance involves the conversion of the parent drug into a different chemical entity by the liver enzymes, while renal clearance involves the removal of the drug from the plasma into the urine. The clearance of a drug can take one of two forms: zero and first-order kinetics. In zero-order reactions, the clearance of a drug is constant and not related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This type of reaction is typically found when the material needed for the reaction to proceed (e.g. enzyme) is saturated. Ethanol and Phenytoin are good examples of this.

      Most drugs tend to follow first-order reactions, where the clearance is related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall by half. In first-order reactions, this is constant. In zero-order reactions, it gets progressively shorter.

      It is important to note that elimination and clearance are not the same. Elimination is the irreversible removal of the drug from the body, while clearance is a theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time, which is independent of the drug dose of concentration. Understanding drug clearance is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen for a drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.3
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of panic attacks presents to your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of panic attacks presents to your clinic with symptoms of agoraphobia. She has been hesitant to seek psychological therapy. Additionally, she has a medical history of hypertension. What are some common features associated with agoraphobia?

      Your Answer: Fluctuant course

      Correct Answer: Normal class distribution

      Explanation:

      The incidence of agoraphobia follows a typical distribution pattern. Westphal’s description of agoraphobia links it to mitral valve prolapse, and it is more prevalent among women with a persistent nature. The preferred method of treatment for agoraphobia is psychological therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What category of behavior does saluting fall under? ...

    Correct

    • What category of behavior does saluting fall under?

      Your Answer: Mannerisms

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What screening tool does NICE recommend for identifying alcohol misuse? ...

    Correct

    • What screening tool does NICE recommend for identifying alcohol misuse?

      Your Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What was the amount of drug X ingested by a patient who has...

    Correct

    • What was the amount of drug X ingested by a patient who has overdosed, given that the drug has a volume of distribution of 4L and their blood concentration of X is 10 mg/L, assuming 100% bioavailability via the route of administration?

      Your Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      95.1
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  • Question 17 - Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome?

      Your Answer: Asystole

      Explanation:

      Non-Mendelian inheritance patterns include mitochondrial inheritance, trinucleotide expansion, mosaicism, and genomic imprinting. These patterns do not follow the typical Mendelian principles. Examples of non-Mendelian mitochondrial inheritance include Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and MELAS syndrome, which is characterized by mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and recurrent stroke.

      On the other hand, Mendelian genetic inheritance patterns include autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and sex-linked disorders such as X-linked dominant and X-linked recessive.

      Mitochondrial DNA abnormalities can lead to various diseases, including MELAS syndrome. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited solely from the mother’s ovum, and the embryo’s mitochondria are entirely maternally derived. Most mitochondrial diseases manifest as myopathies and neuropathies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.1
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following neuroanatomical structures is larger on the left in a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following neuroanatomical structures is larger on the left in a healthy right-handed female aged 25-30 years?

      Your Answer: Transverse temporal gyrus

      Explanation:

      The Heschl gyrus, also known as the transverse temporal gyrus, is a component of the primary auditory complex located in the temporal lobe. It is noteworthy that the left Heschl gyrus is typically larger than the right. This structure is responsible for processing incoming auditory information and is unique in its mediolateral orientation. The brain hemispheres exhibit structural differences, with the left hemisphere (in over 90% of right-handed individuals) specializing in language function. Another structure within the primary auditory complex, the planum temporale, is also typically larger on the left side (up to ten times larger). Conversely, the amygdala, caudate nucleus, cingulate sulcus, and hippocampus are typically larger on the right side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.8
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  • Question 19 - A senior citizen visits your clinic and reports experiencing difficulty in seeing more...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits your clinic and reports experiencing difficulty in seeing more than one object at a time. As a result, they have been colliding with objects while moving around. What condition do you suspect?

      Your Answer: Occipito Parietal dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Bilateral parieto occipital lobe dysfunction

      Explanation:

      The observed symptoms in the patient are indicative of simultanagnosia, a condition that arises due to dysfunction in the parieto occipital lobes on both sides of the brain.

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      54.9
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  • Question 20 - What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer: Grandiose delusions

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.1
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  • Question 21 - A teenager seeks help for the first time with symptoms of depression. She...

    Correct

    • A teenager seeks help for the first time with symptoms of depression. She undergoes extensive treatment from a youth mental health team with counseling and antidepressants. What level of prevention has she received?

      Your Answer: Secondary prevention

      Explanation:

      Secondary prevention aims to decrease the prevalence of a disorder by targeting individuals in the early stages of the disorder, with the goal of reducing its severity and duration and preventing it from becoming chronic. Primary prevention, on the other hand, aims to decrease the incidence of a disorder by targeting individuals who are at risk of developing the disorder but do not yet have it. Selected prevention is a type of primary prevention that focuses on individuals who are at an increased risk of developing the disorder due to factors such as family history. Tertiary prevention is aimed at individuals who already have the disorder, with the goal of reducing the associated disability. Universal prevention is a type of primary prevention that targets the entire population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
      14.6
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  • Question 22 - What clinical symptom is commonly seen in individuals with an underactive thyroid gland?...

    Correct

    • What clinical symptom is commonly seen in individuals with an underactive thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Prolonged relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes

      Explanation:

      Graves’ disease is a specific type of hyperthyroidism that is characterized by unique signs such as lid lag and retraction, exophthalmos, and pretibial myxoedema. Other signs of hyperthyroidism include low body weight and hyperactivity. However, signs such as periorbital edema, dry skin, and hoarse voice are associated with hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      23.7
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  • Question 23 - Which condition is marked by an increased appetite and being overweight? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is marked by an increased appetite and being overweight?

      Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Unique Characteristics

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is a deletion of genetic material from the paternal chromosome 15. This condition is a classic example of imprinting, where the expression of certain genes is dependent on whether they are inherited from the mother of father. The syndrome is characterized by several unique features, including hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity, short stature, delayed puberty, hypogonadism, infertility, learning difficulties, and compulsive behavior such as skin picking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.4
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer: Peripheral inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Correct Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      32.7
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He was standing at the time and the force of the blast threw him to the ground. He suffered a broken arm and multiple cuts. Several people were killed and many others were injured.
      After four months, he experiences nightmares about the incident, struggles to sleep, has avoided going to concerts since, and jumps at sudden sounds. He often finds himself unable to stop thinking about what happened.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that develops in response to an exceptionally threatening of catastrophic event of situation, such as the one described above. It is only diagnosed if symptoms arise within six months of the traumatic event. The symptoms of PTSD can be categorized into three groups: re-experiencing the traumatic event (such as through nightmares of vivid thoughts), persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, and persistent symptoms of increased arousal (such as difficulty sleeping of concentrating).

      Agoraphobia is a fear of being in situations of places from which escape is difficult, leading to avoidance of many situations and confinement to the home. This fear is typically triggered by situations such as crowds, public places, of traveling alone of away from home.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent anxiety that is not limited to any specific environmental circumstance. To receive this diagnosis, a patient must experience symptoms of anxiety on most days for several weeks of months, with evidence of impairment in important areas of functioning. However, this diagnosis is not appropriate for the scenario described above, as the anxiety is related to a specific event of trigger.

      Panic disorder involves sudden onset of severe anxiety, with at least three panic attacks experienced over a three-week period. Symptoms may include sweating, palpitations, shortness of breath, nausea, trembling, chest pain of discomfort, dizziness of lightheadedness, chills of hot flushes, fear of losing control of dying, paraesthesia, feeling of choking, and derealization or depersonalization.

      Social phobia is characterized by a marked fear of social situations in which embarrassment may occur, leading to avoidance of these situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      20.6
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  • Question 26 - What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine.

      Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action

      Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:

      Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.

      Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.

      Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.

      St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.

      In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas: ...

    Incorrect

    • Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas:

      Your Answer: Olfactory bulb and hippocampus

      Correct Answer: Hippocampus and striatum

      Explanation:

      In humans, neurogenesis or new neurons are continually born during adulthood in two regions of the brain: The subgranular zone (SGZ), part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the striatum. In other species of mammals, adult-born neurons also appear in the olfactory bulb. In humans, however, few if any olfactory bulb neurons are generated after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the percentage of children who exhibit a secure attachment based on...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of children who exhibit a secure attachment based on Ainsworth's initial research?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?

      Your Answer: Purkinje, stellate, basket

      Correct Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During a challenging meeting with a teenage client, they express that they feel...

    Incorrect

    • During a challenging meeting with a teenage client, they express that they feel you are condescending and don't value their opinions. Despite your best efforts, you are able to convince them to stay for the session and continue the assessment. As the session progresses, you start to feel frustrated and annoyed with the client's seemingly trivial issues and regret spending so much time on them.

      Which psychodynamic mechanism could be at play in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Countertransference

      Correct Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      Projective identification is a multifaceted mechanism that involves elements of transference, countertransference, and projection. It occurs when a patient’s mistaken belief leads them to behave in a manner that causes the other person in the interaction to adopt the attitudes that the patient wrongly attributed to them.

      For instance, a person at an airport who is overly anxious about being perceived as a terrorist may draw the attention of security guards. In a similar vein, a patient’s assumption that a doctor holds them in contempt may prompt them to act in a manner that elicits disrespectful feelings from the doctor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
      73.2
      Seconds

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Neurosciences (2/3) 67%
Classification And Assessment (3/6) 50%
General Adult Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Genetics (3/3) 100%
Prevention Of Psychological Disorder (1/1) 100%
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