00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Correct

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia repair. Labs are suggestive of a primary haemostasis defect. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely to cause it?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Primary haemostatic control means the first line of defence against immediate bleeding. This is carried out by the platelets. They immediately form a haemostatic plug at the site of injury. Coagulation starts within 20s after an injury to the blood vessel which damage the endothelial cells. Secondary haemostasis follows which includes activation of the coagulation factors to form fibrin strands which mesh together forming the platelet plug. Platelets interact with platelet collagen receptor, glycoprotein Ia/IIa and to collagen fibres in the vascular endothelium. This adhesion is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which forms links between the platelet glycoprotein Ib/IX/V and collagen fibrils. The platelets are then activated and release the contents of their granules into the plasma, in turn activating other platelets and white blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Correct Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The most important difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most important difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is the:

      Your Answer: They are identical

      Correct Answer: Protein concentration

      Explanation:

      Interstitial fluid (or tissue fluid or intercellular fluid) is a solution that surrounds the cells of multicellular animals. It is the main component of the extracellular fluid, which also includes plasma, lymph and transcellular fluid. Plasma, the major component in blood, communicates freely with interstitial fluid through pores and intercellular clefts in capillary endothelium. Interstitial fluid consists of a water solvent containing amino acids, sugars, fatty acids, coenzymes, hormones, neurotransmitters, salts, as well as waste products from the cells. Red blood cells, platelets and plasma proteins cannot pass through the walls of the capillaries. The resulting mixture that does pass through is essentially blood plasma without the plasma proteins. Tissue fluid also contains certain types of white blood cells. Once the extracellular fluid collects into small vessels it is considered to be lymph, and the vessels that carry it back to the blood are called the lymphatic vessels. The lymphatic system returns protein and excess interstitial fluid to the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer: Is inferior to the medial epicondyle of the femur

      Correct Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following structures DO NOT lie between the layers of the mesosalpinx except...

    Incorrect

    • The following structures DO NOT lie between the layers of the mesosalpinx except for the?

      Your Answer: Ovary

      Correct Answer: Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Mesosalpinx is the portion of the broad ligament that stretches from the fallopian tube to the ovary and contains the uterine tubes between it’s layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Correct

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Correct

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th hospital stay developed pneumonia. The most likely organism that causes hospital acquired pneumonia is pseudomonas aeruginosa. What is the most likely mechanism for the pathogenesis on pseudomonas infection?

      Your Answer: Exotoxin

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that can cause disease in plants and animals, including humans. It is citrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. P. aeruginosa uses the virulence factor exotoxin A to inactivate eukaryotic elongation factor 2 via ADP-ribosylation in the host cell, much the same as the diphtheria toxin does. Without elongation factor 2, eukaryotic cells cannot synthesize proteins and necrotise. The release of intracellular contents induces an immunologic response in immunocompetent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      762
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The following branch of the aorta is unpaired: ...

    Correct

    • The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:

      Your Answer: Coeliac artery

      Explanation:

      Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought in for emergency surgery to control the bleeding. Angiography results revealed an advanced duodenal tumour that had perforated the blood vessel immediately behind the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following is the most likely blood vessel that was ruptured by the cancer?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is the artery that lies just behind the first portion of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery would be the most likely artery to be perforated by a cancer in this area. The perforation is as a result of the spillage of the acidic content of the chyme in the duodenum. All the other blood vessels in the list would less likely be affected by the gastric expellant from the duodenum. The coronary vein is located in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal arcade is located inferiorly to the first part of the duodenum on the head of the pancreas. The hepatic artery proper is a branch of the common hepatic artery that is located superior to the first portion of the duodenum. The splenic vein arises from the spleen; it forms the portal vein by joining the superior mesenteric vein. It is laterally detached from the duodenum. Both the left gastric vein and the splenic vein are located superior to the first portion of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Sternal fibres

      Correct Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Correct

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. A full blood count revealed: haematocrit = 30%, erythrocytes = 4 × 106/μ, haemoglobin level = 8 g/dl. To determine the likely cause of his anaemia, red blood cell indices were calculated. Which RBC indices are correct?

      Your Answer: MCHC = haemoglobin concentration/haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is calculated simply by dividing the haemoglobin concentration (8 g/dl) by the haematocrit (0.3). The normal range is 31–36 g/dl. This patient has a hypochromic anaemia (MCHC = 8/0.3 = 26.7 g/dl). Dividing the haemoglobin concentration × 10 by erythrocyte number yields mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Normal range is 25.4–34.6 pg/cell and this patient has a significantly reduced cellular haemoglobin content (MCH = 8 × 10/4 = 20 pg/cell). Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is calculated by dividing haematocrit × 1000 by erythrocyte number (4 × 106/μl). Normal range is 80–100 fl and this patient has a microcytic anaemia (MCV = 0.3 × 1000/4 = 75 fl). Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia is characteristic for iron-deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It lies outside the femoral sheath

      Correct Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Mixed acidosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum 10 days ago. He received gentamicin and ampicillin post-op. 2 days after he was discharged from the hospital, he was readmitted because of high grade fever and chills. His blood culture grew Gram-negative bacilli. Which organism is most likely responsible for the patient's infection?

      Your Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium. It is part of the normal flora of the human colon and is generally a commensal, but can cause infection if displaced into the bloodstream or surrounding tissue following surgery, disease, or trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Correct

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medulloblastoma

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake 200 ml/min, oxygen concentration in the peripheral vein 7 vol%, oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery 10 vol% and oxygen concentration in the aorta 15 vol%.

      Your Answer: 1500 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 4000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The Fick’s principle states that the uptake of a substance by an organ equals the arteriovenous difference of the substance multiplied by the blood flowing through the organ. We can thus calculate the pulmonary blood flow with pulmonary arterial (i.e., mixed venous) oxygen content, aortic oxygen content and oxygen uptake. The pulmonary blood flow, systemic blood flow and cardiac output can be considered the same assuming there are no intracardiac shunts. Thus, we can calculate the cardiac output. Cardiac output = oxygen uptake/(aortic − mixed venous oxygen content) = 200 ml/min/(15 ml O2/100 ml − 10 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/(5 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/0.05 = 4000 ml/min.

      It is crucial to remember to use pulmonary arterial oxygen content and not peripheral vein oxygen content, when calculating the cardiac output by Fick’s method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The contents of the carpal tunnel include:

      – Median nerve

      – Flexor digitorum supervicialis

      – Flexor digitorum profundus

      – Flexor policis longus

      – Flexor carpi radialis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The histological exam of a tuberculous granuloma shows a periphery of multinuclear giant...

    Correct

    • The histological exam of a tuberculous granuloma shows a periphery of multinuclear giant cells, with a central area of:

      Your Answer: Caseous necrosis

      Explanation:

      Granulomas with necrosis tend to have an infectious cause. The chronic infective lesion in this case typically presents with a central area of caseous (cheese-like) necrosis. Foam cells are the fat-laden M2 macrophages seen in atherosclerosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology
      • Pathology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance will be raised in the plasma of this patient?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed due to the break down of RBCs. Haemolysis results in haemoglobin that is broken down into a haem portion and globin which is converted into amino acids and used again. Haem is converted into unconjugated bilirubin in the macrophages and shunted to the liver. In the liver it is conjugated with glucuronic acid making it water soluble and thus excreted in the urine. Its normal levels are from 0.2-1 mg/dl. Increased bilirubin causes jaundice and yellowish discoloration of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This...

    Correct

    • A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Gastrocolic reflex

      Explanation:

      The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Correct

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Supinator and extensor pollicis longus

      Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis and flexor carpi radialis

      Explanation:

      The muscle of the wrist that cause abduction of the wrist otherwise also know as radial flexion of the wrist are the following:

      -Abductor Pollicis Longus

      -Flexor Carpi Radialis

      -Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus

      -Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a...

    Incorrect

    • Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a fatty meal is seen in a condition which involves which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario described here favours the presence of gallstones. During food ingestion, vagal discharges stimulate gallbladder contraction. Moreover, presence of fat and amino acids in the intestinal lumen stimulates the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the duodenum. This causes sustained gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. If gallstones are present, there will be inflammation in the gallbladder and CCK will aggravate it due to contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      29.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (6/6) 100%
Physiology (8/13) 62%
Anatomy (6/13) 46%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/3) 33%
Lower Limb (0/2) 0%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (3/3) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Passmed