-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of these
Explanation:There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A. Recovery from symptoms following infection may be slow and may take several weeks or months. The hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention and appears to be effective for life.Acute hepatitis B infection does not usually require treatment and most adults clear the infection spontaneously. Early antiviral treatment may be required in fewer than 1% of people, whose infection takes a very aggressive course (fulminant hepatitis) or who are immunocompromised. Although none of the available drugs can clear the infection, they can stop the virus from replicating, thus minimizing liver damage.There is no specific treatment for measles. Most people with uncomplicated measles will recover with rest and supportive treatment. In developed countries, children are immunized against measles at 12 months, generally as part of a three-part MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, and rubella). The vaccination is generally not given before this age because such infants respond inadequately to the vaccine due to an immature immune system. Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly, generally within 10 days of infection. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends people receive one dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) and four doses of rabies vaccine over a 14-day period.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High LDL
Explanation:The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:
- Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
- Dyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)
- Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2
- Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Carotid bodies...
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are located near the bifurcation of the carotid arteries bilaterally
Explanation:The carotid body is a small cluster of chemoreceptors and supporting cells located near the fork (bifurcation) of the carotid artery (which runs along both sides of the throat).The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature. Carotid bodies trigger an action potential through the afferent fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve,
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.
Explanation:The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crypts of Lieberkühn
Explanation:An intestinal gland (also crypt of Lieberkühn and intestinal crypt) is a gland found in the intestinal epithelium lining of the small intestine and large intestine (colon) between the villi.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
The channel that coalesces the small pancreatic duct radicles before joining the common bile duct is known as the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct of Wirsung
Explanation:The small ducts from the pancreas coalesce into a single duct known as the pancreatic duct or the duct of Wirsung. It usually joins the bile duct at the ampulla of Vater before entering the duodenum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells
Explanation:Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40–45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80–90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specific relay nuclei
Explanation:The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ß-endorphin
Explanation:ß-endorphin is an endogenous opioid neuropeptide which is mainly synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland, derived from the precursor proopiomelanocortin (POMC). Some studies have shown that immune system cells are also capable of synthesizing ß-endorphin. β-endorphin is thought to exert a tonic inhibitory influence upon GNRH secretion and to be an important regulator of reproductive function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which intercellular connections are responsible for fastening the cells to one another?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemidesmosomes, zonula adherens & desmosomes
Explanation:There are three major types of cell junction:Adherens junctions, desmosomes and hemidesmosomes (anchoring junctions),Gap junctions (communicating junction) &Tight junctions (occluding junctions)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide
Explanation:Number of hormones and neurotransmitters can stimulate and inhibit pancreatic exocrine secretion. Cholecystokinin, secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide and substance P stimulate pancreatic secretion. Pancreatic polypeptide, somatostatin inhibit pancreatic secretion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK):
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It causes gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Explanation:CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin, resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon. It is released (secreted) by your small intestine during the digestive process. It’s sometimes called pancreozymin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diploid
Explanation:Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new diploid nuclei.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Pancreatic juice is usually?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alkaline
Explanation:Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which substance is produced by anterograde neurons?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Classically in the peripheral nervous system, it diffuses from a presynaptic nerve ending to the post synaptic effecter cell which is mainly smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serca (sarcoplasmic or endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase)
Explanation:Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.
Explanation:Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduces towards the centre
Explanation:Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor
Explanation:Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intestine
Explanation:The pancreas is the major source for all the digestive enzymes including nucleases which split nucleic acids into nucleotides primarily in the small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding platelets?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normally have a half-life of about 8 days
Explanation:Platelets have no cell nucleus: they are fragments of cytoplasm that are derived from the megakaryocytes of the bone marrow, and then enter the circulation. They have a half life of 5-9 days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4n
Explanation:In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options are true
Explanation:All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is the structure of nucleosomes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Strands of double strand DNA + histones
Explanation:DNA is packed and condensed by binding to histone proteins. The double stranded DNA forms a complex with histone proteins which is called a nucleosome. There are 8 histone proteins contained in one core of nucleosome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:Brunner’s glands (or duodenal glands) are compound tubular submucosal glands found in that portion of the duodenum which is above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi). The main function of these glands is to produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:- protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach);- provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
