-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft?
Your Answer: Noradrenalin
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron into the synaptic cleft and also by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons as well.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
Explanation:In statistical hypothesis testing there are 2 types of errors:- type I: the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true – i.e. Showing a difference between two groups when it doesn’t exist, a false positive. – type II: the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false – i.e. Failing to spot a difference when one really exists, a false negative.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LH
Explanation:Luteinizing hormone or LH is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Studies have shown surges in LH levels during menopausal hot flushes, suggesting that a pulsatile release of LH is responsible for increased hypothalamic norepinephrine activity, causing the hot flushes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin
Explanation:Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is safe in pregnancy and is therefore the first line management. Warfarin is teratogenic and must be avoided whilst the other options have no role to play.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output due to increase in heart rate and stroke volume
Explanation:Cardiac Output increases to a similar degree as the blood volume. During the first trimester cardiac output is 30-40% higher than in the non-pregnant state. Steady rises are shown on Doppler echocardiography, from an average of 6.7 litres/minute at 8-11 weeks to about 8.7 litres/minute flow at 36-39 weeks; they are due, primarily, to an increase in stroke volume (35%) and, to a lesser extent, to a more rapid heart rate (15%). There is a steady reduction in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) which contributes towards the hyperdynamic circulation observed in pregnancy
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
What is the function of secondary messengers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways
Explanation:First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Humoral immunity is a major defence against:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral infections
Explanation:Humoral immunity is provided by the neutralizing and non-neutralizing antibodies that are formed from the B lymphocytes. This form of immunity is most important in viral infection. Non-neutralizing antibodies increases phagocytosis of the infected cell and inhibit the ability of the virus to replicate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
How does the proximal convoluted tubule excrete H+?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Via Na+/H+ antiporter.
Explanation:H+ secretion from cells across the luminal membrane is mostly in exchange for Na+ ions, and to a small extent, through a proton ATPase. Secreted H+ react with filtered HC03- to form H2CO3.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microfold cells (m cells) of the intestine
Explanation:M cells are specialized epithelial cells. They have a high capacity of transcytosis of microorganisms and macromolecules. They rapidly uptake antigens and present them to immune cells associated with the gut. In contrast to absorptive enterocytes, M cells do not exert direct defence mechanisms to antigens and pathogens in the intestinal cavity. Crypts of Lieberkühn are located mainly in the small intestine and large intestine and the main function is to replenish epithelial cells and to secrete intestinal enzymatic juice as well as mucous. Brunner’s glands empty into intestinal glands and their main function is to secrete mucin and to form a protective mucus layer on the duodenal epithelial cells to protect it from acidic chyme coming from the stomach. Islets of Langerhans are located in the pancreas and secrets insulin mainly. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue plays a role in inducing immune response after presentation of antigens.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly via the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arteriosinusoidal vessels
Explanation:Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers. They include arteriosinusoidal vessels, which connect the arterioles to the heart chambers. The thebesian veins drain the capillaries into the chambers and the arterioluminal vessels drain small arteries directly into the chambers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic. Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver, meat
Explanation:No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferroportin
Explanation:Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which one of the following prostaglandin receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ep3
Explanation:Prostaglandin EP3 receptor is a receptor for prostaglandin E2. Fever occurs as a result of the action of prostaglandin E2 and requires EP3 receptors in the preoptic area. Therefore, if there is an absence of EP3 receptors, fever caused by prostaglandin E2 will not occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
The following play a role in regulation of intestinal iron absorption except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary iron excretion rate
Explanation:The human body’s rate of iron absorption appears to respond to a variety of interdependent factors, including total iron stores, dietary intake, the extent to which the bone marrow is producing new red blood cells, the concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, and the oxygen content of the blood. Classic examples of genetic iron overload includes hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) and the more severe disease juvenile hemochromatosis (JH).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which heart sounds are matched correctly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds often described as a lub and a dub (or dup), that occur in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2), produced by the closing of the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves, respectively. In addition to these normal sounds, a variety of other sounds may be present including heart murmurs, adventitious sounds, and gallop rhythms S3 and S4. S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. S4 when audible in an adult is called a presystolic gallop or atrial gallop. This gallop is produced by the sound of blood being forced into a stiff or hypertrophic ventricle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which protein in the HIV genome is responsible for binding to the host CD4 cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: gp120
Explanation:HIV can infect a variety of immune cells such as CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and microglial cells. HIV-1 entry to macrophages and CD4+ T cells is mediated through interaction of the virion envelope glycoproteins (gp120) with the CD4 molecule on the target cells and also with chemokine coreceptors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
The first enzyme carbohydrates encounter in the digestive tract is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amylase
Explanation:Carbohydrate digesting enzymes are known as amylase. Salivary amylase or ptyalin is the first enzyme to begin carbohydrate digestion in he oral cavity. Amylose is a component of carbohydrates and is not an enzyme. Isomaltase, maltase and sucrase are enzymes found in the small intestines that digest disaccharides like maltose and sucrose to monosaccharides.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anakinra
Explanation:Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased length of filling time during diastole
Explanation:Prolonged aerobic exercise training may also increase stroke volume, which frequently results in a lower (resting) heart rate. Reduced heart rate prolongs ventricular diastole (filling), increasing end-diastolic volume, and ultimately allowing more blood to be ejected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
The rate of depolarisation of the sinus node membrane potential is modulated by all the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac output
Explanation:Cardiac output has no effect on the depolarization of the pacemaker potential of the heart.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures is not part of the conducting system of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular wall
Explanation:The conduction system of the heart consists of the SA node, AV node, internodal pathway between these two nodes, Bundle of His and the purkinje fibers
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which area in the GIT lacks Basic Electrical Rhythm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The basal or basic electrical rhythm acts to coordinate peristalsis and are initiated in the interstitial cells of Cajal, specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach, below the oesophagus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AV node
Explanation:AV node is located at the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is true about bone marrow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At birth the bone marrow is entirely red marrow and is converted to yellow marrow with age
Explanation:The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells. Red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells arise in red marrow. Both types of bone marrow contain numerous blood vessels and capillaries. At birth, all bone marrow is red. With age, more and more of it is converted to the yellow type; only around half of adult bone marrow is red.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
