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Question 1
Incorrect
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A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.
At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?Your Answer: 0.75 mcg/mL
Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical student, observes the surgery but is asked to scrub in and assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts the laryngoscope and asks Alex to locate the larynx.
What anatomical landmark corresponds to the position of the larynx?Your Answer: C3-C6
Explanation:The larynx is an air passage, sphincter, and organ of phonation that extends from the tongue to the trachea. It lies in the anterior part of the neck at the vertebral levels C3 to C6.
Important anatomical landmarks:
C1-C2 – Atlas and axis, respectivelyC3-C6 – Larynx
C5 – Thyroid cartilage
T5-T7 – Pulmonary hilum
T12-L1 – Duodenum
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide?
Your Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?
Your Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance
Explanation:Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:
1) Delta opioid receptor
2) Mu opioid receptor
3) Kappa opioid receptor
4) Orphan receptor-like 1
They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.
Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).
However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1
Explanation:The following units are derived SI units of measurement.
Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.Power: kg.m2.s-3
The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.Force: kg.m.s-2
One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.
The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.
The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:
suxamethonium: 0.27
rocuronium: 0.31
vecuronium: 0.04
pancuronium: 0.07
cisatracurium: 0.04
mivacurium: 0.08 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.
In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromium
Explanation:Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.
Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.
Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.
When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.
Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Incorrect
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During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.
The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.
There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.
Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small arterioles
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.
These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.
Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.
Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5
It can be calculated from the following equation:
SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4
Explanation:Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)
Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
Biceps = C5, C6
Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
Triceps = C6, C7
Knee reflex = L3,L4
Ankle reflex = S1Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
Planter response = S1-2
Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
Cremasteric reflex = L1-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose
Explanation:The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.
Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.
0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
Tonicity – hypertonic
Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 1070.9% N. Saline:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 05% Dextrose:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 170Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 0Hartmann’s solution:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 9 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.
How the data would be analysed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.
ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.
In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: aPTT
Explanation:The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.
D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.
A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.
Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.
Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.
Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.
Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.
Which of the following types of study could that have been?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4
Explanation:In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.
During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.
Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.
Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.
Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.
The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.
The bucks fascia lies within the penis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment osteotomy under local anaesthetic on her first (large) toe.
For the operation, which of the following nerve blocks will be most effective?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal, deep peroneal and posterior tibial nerves
Explanation:An ankle block is commonly used for anaesthesia and postoperative analgesia when operating on bunions. It results in the selective block of the superficial peroneal, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensory input to the web space between the first and second toes (L4-5).
The L2-S1 nerve, often known as the superficial peroneal nerve, is a mixed motor and sensory neuron. It gives sensory supply to the anterolateral region of the leg, the anterior aspect of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th toes, and innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (with the exception of the web space between 1st and 2nd toes).
The sensory area of the saphenous nerve (L3-4) in the foot stretches from the proximal portion of the midfoot on the medial side to the proximal part of the midfoot on the lateral side.
The lateral side of the little (fifth) toe is innervated by the sural nerve’s sensory supply (S1-2). The heel, medial (medial plantar nerve), and lateral (lateral plantar nerve) soles of the foot are all served by the posterior tibial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre
Explanation:Wavelength can be computed as follows:
Wavelength = velocity/frequency
In the given problem, the values stated are:
Frequency = 10 x 10^6
Velocity = 1540 meters per secondWavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 20
Incorrect
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About the vagus nerve, which one of these is true ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gives off the recurrent laryngeal nerve on the right as it passes anteriorly across the subclavian artery
Explanation:The tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve) has both sensory and motor divisions.
It emerges from the anterolateral surface of the medulla in a groove between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle as a series of 8-10 rootlets . It leaves the skull through the middle compartment of the jugular foramen and descends within the carotid sheath between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein. The right vagus crosses in front of the first part of the subclavian artery. It gives off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve at this point.
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around the ligamentum arteriosum.
The external laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the other laryngeal muscles.
The cranial part of the accessory nerve supplies all the muscles of the palate, via the pharyngeal plexus and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve, except the tensor veli palatini which is supplied by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.
The Sternothyroid, Sternohyoid, and Omohyoid muscles are supplied by the ansa cervicalis while the thyrohyoid muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.
What is the most significant reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units
Explanation:In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).
The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.
In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.
PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.
PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.
The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.
What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals
Explanation:After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration
Explanation:The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:
CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)
where:
1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.
Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.
Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.
Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
From superior to inferior, these are the:
– Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
– Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
– Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
– Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
– Cervical branch supplying platysma.There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.
Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is NOT a feature of Propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotriglyceridaemia
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome is a rare but extremely dangerous complication of propofol administration
Common organ systems affected by PRIS include the following:
1. cardiovascular
widening of QRS complex, Brugada syndrome-like patterns (particularly type 1), ventricular tachyarrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, and asystole2. hepatic
Liver enzymes elevation, hepatomegaly, and steatosis3. skeletal muscular
myopathy and overt rhabdomyolysis4. renal
Hyperkalaemia, acute kidney injury5. metabolic
High anion gap metabolic acidosis (due to elevation in lactic acid) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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With regards to oxygen delivery in the body, which of these statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaemia will reduce oxygen delivery
Explanation:Oxygen delivery depends on 2 variables.
1) Content of oxygen in blood
2) Cardiac outputOxygen content (arterial) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x SaO2 (%) ) + (0.023 x PaO2 (kPa))
Oxygen content (mixed venous) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x mixed venous saturation) + (0.023 x mixed venous partial pressure of oxygen in kPA)
Huffner’s constant = 1.39 = 1g of Hb binds to 1.39 ml of O2
Oxygen delivery DO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Oxygen content
Normally 1000ml/minOxygen consumption VO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Difference in arterial and mixed venous oxygen content
Normally 250 ml/minOxygen extraction ratio (OER) = VO2/DO2
Normally approximately 25% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.
On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.
Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).
The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.
The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.
The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.
The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.
The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
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Average Question Time (
Mins)