00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Gonads

      Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is correct regarding the obturator artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is correct regarding the obturator artery?

      Your Answer: It enters the thigh immediately deep to the inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: It is found in the medial compartment of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The obturator artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery, which passes antero-inferiorly on the lateral wall of the pelvis, to the upper part of the obturator foramen. The posterior branch follows the posterior margin of the foramen and turns forward on the inferior ramus of the ischium. It also supplies an articular branch, which enters the hip joint through the acetabular notch, sending a branch along the ligamentum teres to the head of the femur. It is the main source of arterial supply to the medial compartment of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following arteries branch from the deep femoral artery and course...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries branch from the deep femoral artery and course between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?

      Your Answer: Medial femoral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      54.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance vessels?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Correct Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide

      Explanation:

      Gastric vasoconstrictors include catecholamines, angiotensin II and vasopressin. Vasodilators include vasoactive intestinal peptide and the hormones; gastrin, cholecystokinin and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Correct

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Correct

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?...

    Incorrect

    • Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Correct Answer: Aortic

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of an organ is related to its blood supply. The lymphatic drainage of the testis drains along the testicular artery to reach the lymph nodes along the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Correct

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      107.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Blasts

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Incorrect

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident...

    Correct

    • An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident and emergency following a fall down stairs shows a fractured olecranon process of the right ulna with the line of fracture passing through the superior surface, disrupting a muscle. Which among the following muscles was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Triceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The superior surface of the olecranon process forms an attachment for the insertion of the triceps brachii on the posterior aspect. It also has a minor transverse groove for the attachment of part of the posterior ligament of the elbow on the anterior aspect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor,...

    Correct

    • After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor, superficial injuries. 2 hours later, she becomes unconscious and a CT scan reveals a convex, lens-shaped haemorrhage over the right parietal region. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Epidural haematomas are usually caused by arterial bleeding, classically due to damage to the middle meningeal artery by a temporal bone fracture. Symptoms develop within minutes to several hours after the injury and consist of increasing headache, decreased level of consciousness, hemiparesis and pupillary dilation with loss of light reactivity. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%

      Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%

      Monocytes: 2 to 8%

      Eosinophils: 1 to 4%

      Basophils: 0.5 to 1%

      Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:...

    Correct

    • The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is the source of blood supply to the artery...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the source of blood supply to the artery of the round ligament at the head of the femur?

      Your Answer: Lateral femoral circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Obturator artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior branch of the obturator artery provides an articular branch to the head of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      269.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid...

    Incorrect

    • The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: Amino acids

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      87.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The lateral thoracic artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The lateral thoracic artery:

      Your Answer: Emerges through the triangular space

      Correct Answer: Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle

      Explanation:

      The thoracic nerve, along with the lateral thoracic artery, follow the pectoralis minor to the side of the chest which supplies the serratus anterior and the pectoralis. It then sends branches across the axilla to the axillary glands and subscapularis. The pectoral branch of the thoraco-acromial anastomoses with the internal mammary, subscapular and intercostal arteries, which in women, supply an external mammary branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Breast
      99.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.

      The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.

      The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: LDL

      Correct Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in a young women who suffered serious burns to her chest and hands?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency

      Explanation:

      Healing can be sped-up or slowed down due to various reasons: 1. blood supply, 2. infection, 3. denervation, 4. collection of blood/hematoma, 5. mechanical stress, 6. foreign body, 7. techniques used during surgery and 8. dressing of the wound. Other systemic factors include 1. nutrition e.g. deficiency of zinc, vitamin C, protein deficiency, 2. metabolic status, 3. circulatory status and 4. hormonal influence

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:

      Your Answer: X-linked

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic aneurysm. Her blood pressure was low throughout the intra-operative and the post-operative period, along with increasing serum creatinine and urea. Microscopic examination of her urine showed multiple granular and hyaline casts. What is the likely condition the patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      The most common predisposing factor leading to acute tubular necrosis is ischemia, typically seen in hospitalized patients with low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - How much blood can the pulmonary vessels of a 45-year-old healthy man accommodate...

    Correct

    • How much blood can the pulmonary vessels of a 45-year-old healthy man accommodate when he is at rest?

      Your Answer: 500 ml

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the cardiovascular system which carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are very compliant (easily distensible) and so typically accommodate about 500 ml of blood in an adult man. This large lung blood volume can serve as a reservoir for the left ventricle, particularly during periods when left ventricular output momentarily exceeds venous return.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism...

    Correct

    • Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism in fighting infection?

      Your Answer: Specific cellular mechanism → cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The immune system has certain levels of defence against pathogens. First line includes simple barriers such as skin, mucosa and stomach acid that prevent the pathogen from entering into the body. If this barrier is breached then the innate immune system is activated which includes leukocytes (macrophages, neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, natural killer cells). If the pathogens invade the second layer of defence then the third layer, adaptive immunity is activated, which includes B and T lymphocytes. B cells provide a humoral response whereas cytotoxic T cells have specific cellular mechanisms. They maintain a memory of past infections and are activated faster following a recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness....

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness. He is administered sodium bicarbonate used to treat:

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is indicated in the management of metabolic acidosis, which may occur in severe renal disease, uncontrolled diabetes, circulatory insufficiency due to shock or severe dehydration, extracorporeal circulation of blood, cardiac arrest and severe primary lactic acidosis. Bicarbonate is given at 50-100 mmol at a time under scrupulous monitoring of the arterial blood gas readings. This intervention, however, has some serious complications including lactic acidosis, and in those cases, should be used with great care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case of breast carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Axillary lymph node metastases

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic spread indicates poor prognosis. Presence of family history is not a prognostic factor despite being linked to higher incidence. Aneuploidy is a poor prognostic factor. A breast tumour positive for oestrogen receptors is a good prognostic factor as it increases the responsiveness of the tumour to certain therapies. In-situ tumours carry the best prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      22.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (8/14) 57%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Physiology (5/9) 56%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Pathology (5/7) 71%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Breast (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
General (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed