00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia leads to:

      – Prolonged PR interval

      – Small P waves

      – Tall, tented T waves

      – Widened QRS complexes and eventually asystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Where would one find pericytes around endothelial cells? ...

    Correct

    • Where would one find pericytes around endothelial cells?

      Your Answer: Post-capillary venules

      Explanation:

      Pericytes release a wide variety of vasoactive agents which regulate the flow through the junction between endothelial cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Correct

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - ANP and BNP in the circulation act on the kidney to? ...

    Incorrect

    • ANP and BNP in the circulation act on the kidney to?

      Your Answer: Increase rennin secretion

      Correct Answer: Increase sodium excretion

      Explanation:

      The physiologic actions of BNP are similar to those of ANP and include decrease in systemic vascular resistance and central venous pressure as well as an increase in natriuresis (sodium excretion). The net effect of these peptides is a decrease in blood pressure due to the decrease in systemic vascular resistance and, thus, afterload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and mydriasis

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:- Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.- Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft. Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Diaphoresis- Gastrointestinal upset- Emesis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease. The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is pendrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pendrin?

      Your Answer: Cl-/i- symporter

      Correct Answer: Cl-/i- antiporter

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion exchange transporter; it is a sodium-independent chloride-iodine exchanger which also accepts formate and bicarbonate. It is present in many different types of cells in the body, particularly the inner ear, thyroid, and kidney. Mutations in pendrin are associated with Pendred syndrome, which causes syndromic deafness and thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true...

    Correct

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Near the transcription site of a gene, the site at which RNA polymerase...

    Incorrect

    • Near the transcription site of a gene, the site at which RNA polymerase and its cofactors bind is known as the:

      Your Answer: Regulator

      Correct Answer: Promotor

      Explanation:

      Transcription will begin when the RNA polymerase II binds to the promotor. The promotor is a sequence of 25 nucleotides found upstream from the start site of transcription. This promotor sequence is known as the TATA box. Transcription factors also bond along with RNA polymerase to this site to form a complex. However some may bind to regulatory elements proximal to the promotor site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s): ...

    Correct

    • Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s):

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Endothelial cells produce thromboxane, prostacyclins, nitric oxides, endothelins, IL-1 and TNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In the body what are fatty acids broken down to? ...

    Correct

    • In the body what are fatty acids broken down to?

      Your Answer: Acetyl Co A

      Explanation:

      Fatty acids are broken down into acetyl Co A. The acetyl-CoA produced by beta oxidation enters the citric acid cycle in the mitochondrion by combining with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Incorrect

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Somatic cells

      Correct Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8BP: 90/60 mmHgPulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange MRI of right ankle

      Correct Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer: Divalent metal transporter 1

      Correct Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following pairing is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairing is correct:

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex type I and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex virus is likely the most common cause of Mollaret’s meningitis, and, in worse case scenarios, can lead to a potentially fatal case of herpes simplex encephalitis. The eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8 causes Kaposi’s sarcoma and Herpes simplex type 2 is responsible for most primary genital herpes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Correct

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which...

    Correct

    • The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which participates in:

      Your Answer: Sensory, motor and limbic

      Explanation:

      The thalamus has multiple functions. It is the relay station for every sensory system (except olfactory, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and consciousness and also relays motor information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?

      Your Answer: Pituitary

      Correct Answer: Adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 81 year old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical...

    Incorrect

    • An 81 year old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical examination reveals left hemiparesis. How would you classify this hemiparesis based on the WHO International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health?

      Your Answer: Activity limitation

      Correct Answer: Impairment of body function

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and signs are classified as ‘impairment of body function’. The types of impairment classified as ‘activity limitation’ include difficulties that a patient may have in executing certain activities. The type of impairment classified as ‘participation restriction’ are problems a patient may have in social roles. The type of impairment classified as ‘pathology’ would be the diagnosis/disease. Right total anterior circulation infarct relates to the Oxford Bamford classification for stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm.Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm.Which of the following features do not suggest malignant change?

      Your Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The enzyme that catalyses the final step in glycogen synthesis is: ...

    Correct

    • The enzyme that catalyses the final step in glycogen synthesis is:

      Your Answer: Glycogen synthase

      Explanation:

      Glycogen synthase is a key enzyme in glycogenesis, the conversion of glucose into glycogen. This enzyme combines excess glucose residues one by one into a polymeric chain for storage as glycogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is safe in pregnancy and is therefore the first line management. Warfarin is teratogenic and must be avoided whilst the other options have no role to play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C?

      Your Answer: Found in the psin proteins (rhodopsin and iodopsin) in the retina

      Correct Answer: Hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline for collagen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C acts as an electron donor for eight different enzymes: Three enzymes (prolyl-3-hydroxylase, prolyl-4-hydroxylase, and lysyl hydroxylase) that are required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is troponin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is troponin?

      Your Answer: A myosin light chain

      Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are:

      Your Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, active ventricular filling, passive ventricular filling.

      Correct Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.1st stage: diastole, or passive filling is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. 2nd stage: atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle (active filling).3rd stage: isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. 4th stage: ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. 5th stage: isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      27.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (3/5) 60%
Medicine (17/30) 57%
Genetics (2/4) 50%
Geriatrics (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (3/4) 75%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed