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  • Question 1 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Correct

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted when mixed with Type A antibodies. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      There are two stages to determine the blood group, known as ABO typing. The first stage is called forward typing. In this method, RBCs are mixed with two separate solutions of type A or type B antibodies to see if they agglutinate. If this blood clumps, this indicates the presence of antigens within the blood sample. For example, a sample of type B blood will clump when tested with type A antibodies as it contains type B antigens. Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain....

    Correct

    • The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?

      Your Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of a worsening shortness of breath, fever, agitation and cough. Oxygen saturation was 67% in room air. Her respiratory status continued to deteriorate therefore she was intubated. She was admitted to the intensive care unit for management. Chest X-ray demonstrated bilateral perihilar opacities. The patient failed conventional treatment and died several days later. At autopsy, the lung shows growth of type 2 pneumocytes and thickened alveolar walls. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      Acute (or adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening lung condition characterised by a non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema that leads to acute respiratory failure. The most common risk factors for ARDS include trauma with direct lung injury, sepsis, pneumonia, pancreatitis, burns, drug overdose, massive blood transfusion and shock. Acute onset of dyspnoea with hypoxemia, anxiety and agitation is typical. Chest X ray most commonly demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Histological changes include the exudative, proliferative and fibrotic phase. ARDS is mainly a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?

      Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Correct

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the...

    Correct

    • A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?

      Your Answer: Posterior rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In what form are fats primarily transported in the body? ...

    Correct

    • In what form are fats primarily transported in the body?

      Your Answer: Free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Fat is mainly transported in the body as free fatty acids. Once out of the adipose cell, the free fatty acids get ionized and combine with albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Cyclophosphamide is used as a chemotherapy and immunosuppressant agent and is indicated in...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclophosphamide is used as a chemotherapy and immunosuppressant agent and is indicated in various diseases. One of the most severe complications of its use is cancer of the:

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Urinary bladder

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide is used to treat various types of cancer and autoimmune disorders. The main use of cyclophosphamide is in combination with other chemotherapy agents in the treatment of lymphomas, some forms of leukaemia and some solid tumours. Side-effects include nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, stomach ache, diarrhoea, darkening of the skin/nails, alopecia, lethargy, and haemorrhagic cystitis. Cyclophosphamide is itself carcinogenic, potentially causing transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder as a long-term complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial...

    Correct

    • Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial oxygen [pa(O2)] than the alveolar oxygen [pA(O2)]. This difference is:

      Your Answer: Is normal and due to shunted blood

      Explanation:

      Blood that bypasses the ventilated parts of lung and enters the arterial circulation directly is known as shunted blood. It happens in normal people due to mixing of arterial blood with bronchial and some myocardial venous blood (which drains into the left heart). Diffusion limitation and reaction velocity with haemoglobin are immeasurably small. CO2 unloading will not affect the difference between alveolar and arterial p(O2). A large VSD will result in much lower arterial O2 as compared to alveolar O2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year old boy presented with low grade fever, night sweats and weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old boy presented with low grade fever, night sweats and weakness over two months. On examination, he had multiple, non-tender, cervical, supraclavicular and axillary adenopathy. Microscopy of lymph node biopsy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. He is likely suffering from:

      Your Answer: Burkitt’s lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a disease characterized by malignant proliferation of cells of the lymphoreticular system. It can be localized or disseminated, and can involve the nodes, spleen, liver and marrow. Symptoms of the disease include non-tender lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, weight loss, itching and hepatosplenomegaly. Histologically, the involved nodes show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, binucleated cells, in a heterogenous cellular infiltrate of histiocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, plasma cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Anatomy (3/3) 100%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
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