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  • Question 1 - The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?...

    Incorrect

    • The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer: Arachnoid mater

      Correct Answer: Tela choroidea

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer: 1/3 systolic plus 2/3 diastolic

      Correct Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the following group of nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN III, IV, V1, VI

      Explanation:

      The superior and inferior divisions of oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of ophthalmic V1 and the abducens nerve (VI)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Afferent fibers from the baroreceptors of the great arteries form branches of which...

    Incorrect

    • Afferent fibers from the baroreceptors of the great arteries form branches of which cranial nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The receptors of the carotid sinus are innervated by the carotid sinus nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. The aortic arch receptors located in the arch of the aorta are innervated by the aortic depressor nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)Nausea and vomiting: 50%Vertigo: 50%Confusion: 30%Subjective weakness: 20%Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathCherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.Management• 100% oxygen• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor cortex and planning and programming movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebrocerebellum is the largest functional subdivision of the cerebellum, comprising of the lateral hemispheres and the dentate nuclei. It is involved in the planning and timing of movements, and in the cognitive functions of the cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guanylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Impaired production or excess catabolism of NO impairs this endothelium-dependent vasodilator function and may contribute to excessive vasoconstriction under various pathological situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indicator dilution method

      Explanation:

      There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide causes extrapyramidal effects (especially in children and young adults), hyperprolactinaemia, and occasionally tardive dyskinesia on prolonged administration. Also reported are drowsiness, restlessness, diarrhoea, depression, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, rashes, pruritus, oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of cajal

      Explanation:

      The interstitial cells of Cajal are specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. These cells are connected to the smooth muscle via gap junctions and the myenteric plexus. The cell membranes of the pacemaker cells undergo a rhythmic depolarization and repolarization from -65mV to -45mV. This rhythm of depolarization-repolarization of the cell membrane creates a slow wave known as a basic electrical rhythm (BER), and it is transmitted to the smooth muscle cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - G cells release which of the following substances ...

    Incorrect

    • G cells release which of the following substances

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Where is the most erythropoietin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the most erythropoietin produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their inactive precursors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterokinase

      Explanation:

      Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neospinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is an ascending or a sensory tract, responsible for transmission of pain and temperature. The neospinothalamic tract is responsible for fast pain or discriminative pain whereas the palaeospinothalamic tract is responsible for transmission of slow pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Complete blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:Hb: 12.4 g/dl Plt: 137 WBC: 7.5*109/l PT: 14 secs APTT: 46 secs Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      The combination of APTT and low platelets with recurrent DVTs make antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin...

    Incorrect

    • The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidise

      Explanation:

      Thyroid peroxidase is an enzyme that is secreted into the thyroid colloid. It works by oxidizing iodide ions into iodine which are incorporated into thyroglobulin, in order to produce T3 and T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5ht3

      Explanation:

      5ht3 is a receptor strongly associated with vomiting, present in vagal afferents, the solitary tract nucleus (STN), and the area posterior. For this reason, 5ht3 antagonists are commonly used as antiemetic drugs. They include ondansetron, tropisetron, and granisetron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting the breakdown cAMP

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to...

    Incorrect

    • The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to a muscle is mediated by which sensory organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Golgi tendon organ

      Explanation:

      Both the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon body are proprioceptors. The Golgi tendon reflex is a normal component of the reflex arc of the peripheral nervous system. In a Golgi tendon reflex, skeletal muscle contraction causes the antagonist muscle to simultaneously lengthen and relax. This reflex is also called the inverse myotatic reflex, because it is the inverse of the stretch reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose. In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions. Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension. Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:- Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms. – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.- The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.- Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia. – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur. – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval ...

    Incorrect

    • Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: QT

      Explanation:

      The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization as well as ventricular repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

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Medicine (0/2) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
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