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  • Question 1 - In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves:

      Your Answer: Chromosomes aligning themselves on the microtubules at the centre of the cell

      Correct Answer: Replicated DNA condensing to form visible chromosomes

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages (laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis). In prophase 1, chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Incorrect

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Increase in Ca, decrease in phosphate

      Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following determines the strength of contraction ...

    Correct

    • The following determines the strength of contraction

      Your Answer: Plateau phase

      Explanation:

      The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (or refractory) phase in myocyte action potential prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: She is likely to put on 2-3 kilograms of weight per year while using the combined pill

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Sequence of events in formation of speech are: ...

    Incorrect

    • Sequence of events in formation of speech are:

      Your Answer: Insula---Wernicke's area---arcuate fasciculus---broca’s area---motor cortex ---speech

      Correct Answer: Wernicke’s area---arcuate fasciculus---broca’s area---insula---motor cortex---speech

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language. Firstly, the language is accessed in the Wernicke’s area and these words are sent via the arcuate fasciculus to the Broca’s area, where instructions for articulation is generated. This is then sent from Broca’s are to the motor cortex for the articulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Pepsinogen

      Correct Answer: Hydrochloric acid

      Explanation:

      Cells in the body of the stomach secrete mucus, HCl and pepsinogen. Cells in the antrum secrete pepsinogen, gastrin and mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit:

      Your Answer: All gene mutations cause clinical disease entities

      Explanation:

      All gene mutations do not cause a clinical manifestation of the disease, some gene mutations are silent mutations. They are present but do not cause any disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the: ...

    Correct

    • Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the:

      Your Answer: Coronary sinus and anterior cardiac veins

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins which drain into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The position of the kidneys besides the vertebral column retroperitoneally spans levels: ...

    Incorrect

    • The position of the kidneys besides the vertebral column retroperitoneally spans levels:

      Your Answer: T10 – L1

      Correct Answer: T12 – L3

      Explanation:

      The asymmetry within the abdominal cavity, caused by the position of the liver, typically results in the right kidney being slightly lower and smaller than the left, and being placed slightly more to the middle than the left kidney. The left kidney is approximately at the vertebral level T12 to L3, and the right is slightly lower.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Cyclic AMP is broken down by which enzyme ...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclic AMP is broken down by which enzyme

      Your Answer: Adenylyl cyclase

      Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase

      Explanation:

      cAMP decomposition into AMP is catalysed by the enzyme phosphodiesterase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s...

    Correct

    • Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except:

      Your Answer: Stem cells

      Correct Answer: Certain liver cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive nucleotide sequences to the ends of chromosomes (telomeres), preventing their shortening during cell division. Telomerase activity is crucial for cells that divide frequently and need to maintain their telomere length for continued proliferation. These include:

      • Stem cells: They have high telomerase activity to maintain their long-term proliferative capacity.
      • Germ cells: These cells also have active telomerase to ensure the stability of genetic material across generations.
      • Certain white blood cells: Some immune cells, particularly those that need to proliferate in response to infection, show telomerase activity.
      • Certain cancer cells: Many cancer cells reactivate telomerase, which contributes to their uncontrolled growth and immortality.

      However, most somatic cells, including certain liver cells, do not exhibit significant telomerase activity. While some liver cells might show low levels of telomerase activity during regeneration, it is not generally active in normal, differentiated liver cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast?

      Your Answer: Trophic effect, breast growth

      Correct Answer: Milk ejection

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is a peptide hormone and neuropeptide, produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. It causes the milk ejection or let-down reflex, causing the milk to be transported to the subareolar sinuses, allowing it to be released through the nipple. This response is initiated by the act of suckling by the baby, but it can be conditioned to be triggered by different stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer: They are relatively common but their expression is variable

      Correct Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart

      Your Answer: 6th intercostal space mid clavicular line

      Correct Answer: 2nd left costal to 3rd right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The base of the heart, also known as the superior border of the heart corresponds to a line connecting the inferior border of the 2nd left costal cartilage to the superior border of the 3rd right costal cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents? ...

    Correct

    • In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents?

      Your Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections and two downward deflections have been described: The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G2 phase

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which is NOT a prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT a prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Surface ulceration

      Correct Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm

      Explanation:

      Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient with achalasia ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with achalasia

      Your Answer: Has failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to contract.

      Correct Answer: Has decreased production of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus and the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES). It is characterized by incomplete LES relaxation, increased LES tone, and lack of peristalsis of the oesophagus (inability of smooth muscle to move food down the oesophagus) in the absence of other explanations like cancer or fibrosis. In achalasia, there is loss of nitric oxide (NO) and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) releasing inhibitory neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which coronary artery supplies the right atria? ...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?

      Your Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+...

    Incorrect

    • Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+ to troponin C results in all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of troponin i

      Correct Answer: Weakening of the troponin i interaction with actin

      Explanation:

      At rest, troponin i is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When Calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin i which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The main source of nutrients in the liver is via the ...

    Correct

    • The main source of nutrients in the liver is via the

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein or hepatic portal vein is a blood vessel that carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver. This blood is rich in nutrients that have been extracted from food, and the liver processes these nutrients; it also filters toxins that may have been ingested with the food. 75% of total liver blood flow is through the portal vein, with the remainder coming from the hepatic artery proper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - How are the long chain fatty acids (more than 10 to 12 carbon...

    Incorrect

    • How are the long chain fatty acids (more than 10 to 12 carbon atoms) absorbed?

      Your Answer: Re-esterified to triglycerides and enter capillaries as low density lipoproteins

      Correct Answer: Re-esterified to triglycerides and enter the lymphatics as chylomicrons

      Explanation:

      Short and medium chain fatty acids are absorbed into the blood via intestinal capillaries and travel through the portal vein. Long chain fatty acids are not directly released into the intestinal capillaries. They are re-esterified to triglycerides and are coated with cholesterol and protein, forming chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are released in the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The coronary sinus drains into the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The coronary sinus drains into the:

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus drains into the right atrium. Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The premotor cortex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The premotor cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 8

      Correct Answer: Brodmann area 6

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as...

    Correct

    • Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis on its own does not lead to left ventricular dilatation and hence a displaced apex beat. Thus a displaced apex beat is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other options occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose. In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions. Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension. Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:- Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms. – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.- The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.- Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia. – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur. – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/5) 20%
Medicine (10/30) 33%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (6/9) 67%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/3) 0%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Passmed