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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat. Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: Respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast.Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.Treatment of opioid overdose:Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:

      • When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) there is increased risk of psychosis.
      • Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      • Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      • Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.
      • Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.Features of toxicityCoarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)HyperreflexiaAcute confusionSeizureComaManagementMild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal salineHaemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicitySodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/lNa+: 136 mmol/lK+: 4.6 mmol/lUrea: 8.1 mmol/lCreatinine: 99 µmol/lBicarbonate: 18 mmol/lWhat is the most appropriate management for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hoursAs post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below: pH - 7.28pCO2 - 3.5 kPapO2 - 15.9 kPaNa+ - 139 mmol/LK+ - 4.5 mmol/LBicarbonate - 11 mmol/LChloride - 113 mmol/LLactate - 13.6 mmol/LKeeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire. Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate. Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.Other options:- Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised. – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed. – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.Note:Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymesClinical presentation:Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almondsAcute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusionChronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:Supportive measures: 100% oxygenDefinitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 8 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has been unable to keep fluids down for 4 days and has been treated with metoclopramide. She develops a dystonic reaction. What is the most appropriate treatment for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benztropine

      Explanation:

      Acute dystonic reactions (extrapyramidal symptoms) such as spasmodic torticollis, trismus, and oculogyric crises can occur following the administration of metoclopramide or stemetil and thus, neither is recommended for the treatment of nausea in young women.

      Such reactions respond well to treatment with benztropine or procyclidine.

      – Benztropine: It is an anticholinergic medication with significant CNS penetration. A single dose of benztropine 1 to 2 mg IV followed by 1 to 2 mg p.o twice a day for up to 7 days to prevent a recurrence. Subsequently, both the offending agent and those from the same group should be avoided.

      – Alternatively, diphenhydramine can be used intravenously (up to a dose of 50mg) or intramuscularly followed by p.o therapy every 6 hours for 1 to 2 to prevent a recurrence.- Second-line therapy with IV benzodiazepines is reserved for those patients who do not respond to anticholinergics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

      Sumatriptan acts as an agonist on 5-HT1B/1D receptors by inducing vasoconstriction in the basilar artery and blood vessels within the dura mater. The drug reduces peripheral nociception either by selective cranial vasoconstriction or by affecting trigeminovascular nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Features of carbon monoxide toxicity- Headache: 90% of cases- Nausea and vomiting: 50%- Vertigo: 50%- Confusion: 30%- Subjective weakness: 20%- Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathTreatment:Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water.On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic.What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.Management: – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.- Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline). – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.- Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose. In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions. Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension. Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:- Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms. – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.- The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.- Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia. – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur. – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot. LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation. Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.Dosage and uses:LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.Less commonly it can cause:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)Osteoporosis and spontaneous fracturesHypoaldosteronismHypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Although rare, ocular toxicity in the form of optic neuritis (most commonly retrobulbar neuritis) has been well documented as a side effect of ethambutol. It is renally excreted and not associated with hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC

      Explanation:

      Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state. Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.Treatment of MDMA overdose:Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult.Her blood investigations revealed:White cell count: 13 × 109/lHaemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dlActivated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): NormalPlatelets: 140 × 109/lINR: 6.0Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal.Other investigations:An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal.An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and observe

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate. Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice. Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities. Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.Uses- Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage- Acromegaly- Carcinoid syndrome- Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery- VIPomas- Refractory diarrhoeaAdverse effectsGallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)Other options:- Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.- Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.- Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis- Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (3/5) 60%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
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