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  • Question 1 - Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as:...

    Incorrect

    • Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as:

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Axoplasmic flow

      Explanation:

      Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as axoplasmic, axonal flow or Axonal transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere?

      Your Answer: Telophase

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      During the prometaphase the microtubule organizing centre completely develops. The spindle fibers attach to the chromosome and the centriole. It is in the Anaphase however that the spindle fibers contract pulling the sister chromatids apart. Later in the anaphase a cleave furrow beings to forms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:...

    Incorrect

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:

      Your Answer: Nucleotides

      Correct Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is...

    Correct

    • An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding it difficult to find the right words to explain his thoughts. Doctors have examined him, and everything else appears to be normal. They have also found that his comprehension is good. From the list of options, choose the anatomical site which in this instance, is most likely affected.

      Your Answer: Broca’s Area

      Explanation:

      The combination of good comprehension but poor speech quality in this patient is consistent with damage to the Broca’s area. The Wernicke’s area is responsible for the understanding of speech, and so is not consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Salty taste is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • Salty taste is triggered by:

      Your Answer: Amiloride-sensitive sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Amiloride-sensitive sodium channels also known as epithelial Na channels is a membrane bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. These channels are located throughout different epithelial membranes in the body. It is found in taste receptor cells, where it plays an important role in salt taste perception. They are also located in the kidney, the lung and the colon. Hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide-gated (HCN) voltage-gated ion channels are widely seen in the cortex, hippocampus, thalamus and brain regions that underlie the generation of both focal and generalized-onset seizures. The metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluRs) perform a variety of functions in the central and peripheral nervous systems. They are involved in learning, memory, anxiety, and the perception of pain. Gustducin is a G protein associated with taste and gustatory system. It plays a major role in sensation of bitter, sweet and umami stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage?

      Your Answer: Normoblast

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver...

    Correct

    • In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver are known as :

      Your Answer: Hypnozoites

      Explanation:

      The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the aortic valve found? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the aortic valve found?

      Your Answer: Situated in the left third intercostal space underneath the sternum

      Explanation:

      The aortic valve is situated in the left 3rd intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Correct

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins into free fatty acids for storage in...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins into free fatty acids for storage in fat cells?

      Your Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      Lipoprotein lipase is a water-soluble enzyme that hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins, such as those found in chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), into two free fatty acids and one monoacylglycerol molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?...

    Correct

    • Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?

      Your Answer: Somatotroph

      Explanation:

      Somatotroph cells are responsible for the production of growth hormone. Somatotrophs occupy nearly 40% of the total surface area of the anterior pituitary, and they are acidophilic in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Sinus bradycardia may be caused by disease of which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Sinus bradycardia may be caused by disease of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Disease of the right coronary artery may cause sinus bradycardia and AV nodal block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which area is depolarization initiated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which area is depolarization initiated?

      Your Answer: Bundle of His

      Correct Answer: SA node

      Explanation:

      SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. It determines the rate of contractions. It is the place where depolarization is initiated. It exhibits phase 4 depolarization or automaticity. Electrical impulses then spread to the AV node, purkinje fibers, bundle of his and the ventricular muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily.Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?

      Your Answer: They stimulate HMG CoA reductase

      Correct Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions. This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to thrombolysis include:

      • Previous intracranial bleeding at any time
      • Stroke in less than 6 months
      • Closed head or facial trauma within 3 months
      • Suspected aortic dissection
      • Ischemic stroke within 3 months (except in ischemic stroke within 3 hours time)
      • Active bleeding diathesis
      • Uncontrolled high blood pressure (>180 systolic or >100 diastolic)
      • Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      • Arterio-venous malformations
      • Thrombocytopenia
      • Known coagulation disorders
      • Aneurysm
      • Brain tumours
      • Pericardial effusion
      • Septic embolus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer: 23 chromosomes

      Correct Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Endotoxin ...

    Incorrect

    • Endotoxin

      Your Answer: Has four specialized secretion pathways

      Correct Answer: Composed of Lipid A in liposaccharide in cell wall

      Explanation:

      Lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as lipoglycans and endotoxins, are large molecules consisting of a lipid (lipid A) and a polysaccharide composed of O-antigen, outer core and inner core joined by a covalent bond; they are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, and elicit strong immune responses in animals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory...

    Incorrect

    • In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory cortex. Which one of the following is not one of the five regions?

      Your Answer: Entorhinal cortex

      Correct Answer: Posterior olfactory nucleus

      Explanation:

      The olfactory system contains peripheral and central divisions which are connected by transduction structures. Peripheral division consists mainly of the nostrils, ethmoid bone, nasal cavity, and the olfactory epithelium. Olfactory neurons are receptor cells in the epithelium that detect odour molecules dissolved in the mucus and transmit information about the odour to the brain in a process called sensory transduction. Olfactory nerves and fibers transmit information about odours from the peripheral olfactory system to the central olfactory system of the brain. The main olfactory bulb transmits pulses to both mitral and tufted cells, which help determine odour concentration. These cells also note differences between highly similar odours and use that data to aid in later recognition. The cells are different with the mitral having low firing-rates and being easily inhibited by neighbouring cells, while tufted have high rates of firing and are more difficult to inhibit. The uncus houses the olfactory cortex which includes the piriform cortex, amygdala, olfactory tubercle, and para-hippocampal gyrus. Entorhinal cortex is an area of middle temporal lobe that has connection with the para-hippocampal gyrus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Correct

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The functional unit of the liver is called? ...

    Correct

    • The functional unit of the liver is called?

      Your Answer: Acini

      Explanation:

      From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe

      Correct Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly...

    Incorrect

    • Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly via the:

      Your Answer: AV fistulas

      Correct Answer: Arteriosinusoidal vessels

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers. They include arteriosinusoidal vessels, which connect the arterioles to the heart chambers. The thebesian veins drain the capillaries into the chambers and the arterioluminal vessels drain small arteries directly into the chambers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves: ...

    Correct

    • Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves:

      Your Answer: Short term regulation of systemic blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Baroreceptors are found in the heart and the blood vessels. They are the carotid sinus and the aortic arch receptors and respond to the minute to minute change in the blood pressure i.e. a change in the pulsatile pressure and not to a change in the mean arterial pressure. If the pulse pressure decreases, the rate of firing of the receptors decreases, stimulating an increase in the heart rate and blood pressure. Mechanisms that regulate the long term blood pressure control include the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the normal portal venous pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal portal venous pressure?

      Your Answer: 20 mm hg

      Correct Answer: 6 mm hg

      Explanation:

      Portal venous pressure is the blood pressure in the hepatic portal vein, and is normally between 5-10 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. ...

    Incorrect

    • Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin and vasopressin

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). These hormones are stored in Herring bodies before being secreted into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (16/29) 55%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Genetics (2/5) 40%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (3/5) 60%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Passmed