-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.
Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Volunteers are being recruited for a new clinical trial of a novel drug treatment for Ulcerative colitis. The proposed study will enrol about 2000 people with ulcerative colitis. Testing will be performed to assess any reduction in disease severity with the new drug as compared to the current treatment available in the industry.
Which phase of clinical trial will this be?Your Answer: Phase 3
Explanation:This clinical trial consists over 1000 patients being evaluated for the response to a new treatment against a currently licensed treatment for ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is comparing its efficacy to an established therapeutic or control in a larger population of volunteers. These are the characteristics of a phase III clinical trial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.
Clinical examination is as follows:
Airway: Patent
Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
Pulse: 125 beats per minute
BP: 125/96 mmHg
Disability:
Glasgow coma score 15
Anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?Your Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
Minimal systolic pressure changes
Anxiety, fright or hostility
Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which of the listed veins?
Your Answer: Axillary
Explanation:The cephalic vein is a superficial vein that runs through the forearm and the arm, before draining into the axillary vein where it terminates.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.
How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?Your Answer: 150
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (43.9-37.3)
ARR= 6.6
NNT= 1000/6.6
NNT=151.5
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is?
Your Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.
FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.
Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 74-year old male who has a history of heart failure has an exacerbation of his symptoms and goes to the ED. An ultrasound scan is done which shows that there is a decrease in his stroke volume. Which of these choices would one expect to increase his stroke volume0
Your Answer: Respiratory inspiration
Explanation:Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.
Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
Hypotension also decreases venous return.
A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output. Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.
Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?
Your Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio
Explanation:The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).
The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland.
What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?Your Answer: Inferior vesical artery
Explanation:The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.
The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissueThe venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
On clinical examination, the following were the findings:
Pulse: 120 beats per minute
BP: 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 22 breaths per minute
Capillary refill time: three seconds
Cool peripheries.
Which of the following best describes the cause for this clinical finding?Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:Classification of hemorrhagic shock according to Advanced Trauma Life Support is as follows:
– Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%) in which there is no change in blood pressure, RR, or pulse pressure.
– Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss) where there is tachycardia, tachypnoea, and a decrease in pulse pressure.
– Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss) where clinical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state, and measurable fall in systolic pressure is seen. It almost always requires a blood transfusion.
– Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss) in which marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure, and markedly depressed mental state with cold and pale skin are seen.
Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse, and blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine.
On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs.
Initial biochemical tests are as follows:
Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145)
K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101)
Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29)
Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3)
Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80)
Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg
Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg
TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0)
Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25)
Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5)
Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?Your Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy
Explanation:Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.
Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:
125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
<120mmol/L - Up to 11% present with coma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?
Your Answer: Expert consensus
Explanation:The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made.
Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?Your Answer: Midgut
Explanation:The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvisThe appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.
The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.
Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?Your Answer: 95.40%
Explanation:Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.
Properties of the Normal distribution
symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median
68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean
95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean
99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.SD = square root (variance)
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.
Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
1st Month 0
2nd Month 3
3rd Month 1
4th Month 45
5th Month 2
6th Month 0
7th Month 1
8th Month 4
9th Month 4
10th Month 2
Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?Your Answer: Median
Explanation:Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.
Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.
The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.
Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.
In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)