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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?
Your Answer: The ductus venosus stays open in the foetus due to low PaO2 and circulating prostaglandins
Correct Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium
Explanation:In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
Your Answer: Prematurity
Correct Answer: Breech presentation
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?
Your Answer: Reassure
Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot
Explanation:Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision
Explanation:Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?
Your Answer: Two minutes of chest compressions
Correct Answer: 5× inflation breaths
Explanation:Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 –8, BE –14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer: 0.1 ml/kg 1:10000 adrenaline
Correct Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement
Explanation:Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?
Your Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case
Explanation:There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Settings are mean airway pressure 14 cmH2O, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 1.0. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 84%. Blood gas shows pH 7.32, CO2 6.5 kPa, BE –4. Chest X-ray shows poorly inflated lungs.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer: Increase mean airway pressure
Explanation:The baby needs more oxygen saturation which could be attempted by increasing the mean airway pressureAfter initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Frontal bossing
Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?
Your Answer: 1800ml
Correct Answer: 600ml
Explanation:In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome
Correct Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)
Explanation:The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely to be found?
Your Answer: African
Correct Answer: White European
Explanation:Mongolian spots are, hyper-pigmented, non-blanching patches present on the back and gluteal region at birth. They are commonly found in African and Asian ethnic groups, and can also present in infants of Mediterranean and middle eastern descent. Though the spots usually disappear by puberty, some may persist into adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?
Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss is the most frequent long-term consequence
Correct Answer: Petechiae are due to thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most frequent cause of congenital infection worldwide, with an estimated incidence in developed countries of 0.6–0.7% of all live births.The clinical spectrum of congenital CMV infection varies widely, from the complete absence of signs of infection (asymptomatic infection) to potentially life-threatening disseminated disease. At birth, 85–90% of infected infants are asymptomatic, and 10–15% present with clinical apparent infection (symptomatic disease).The presentation in this latter group is a continuum of disease expression whose more common findings are petechiae, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, microcephaly, and other neurologic signs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?
Your Answer: Parental unemployment
Explanation:Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?
Your Answer: 15 cmH2O
Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O
Explanation:According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: Maternal diabetes
Correct Answer: Maternal thrombotic disorder
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is a deficiency in the amniotic fluid volume, measured via ultrasound. Maternal factors associated with oligohydramnios include conditions where there is placental insufficiency such as chronic hypertension, preeclampsia or a thrombotic disorder, post-term pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes, certain chromosomal abnormalities, and obstructions of the foetal urinary tract. On the other hand conditions that are associated with polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) include maternal diabetes, multiple gestations, Rh incompatibility and pulmonary abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: Cleft palate
Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery
Explanation:An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Explanation:In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Small for their gestational age (SGA)
Correct Answer: Jaundice
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 21
Correct
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The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hydrops fetalis is a serious condition characterized by excessive fluid accumulation resulting in oedema in one or more of the fetal compartments. The most likely cause is fetal anaemia, and the condition may lead to ascites and pleural effusion. The anaemia that results in hydrops may be caused by Rh incompatibility, Parvovirus B19 infection, toxoplasmosis, hepatitis B, maternal syphilis (strong association), Cytomegalovirus, Turner syndrome, and Noonan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer: Gestation < 34 weeks
Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Correct
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Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?
Your Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A neonate has been observed, by his parents, twitching and jerking in his sleep. Which one of the following is not a cause of neonatal seizures?
Your Answer: Neonatal myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus (BNSM) is a disorder commonly mistaken for seizures during the new-born period. It is characterized by myoclonic lightninglike jerks of the extremities that exclusively occur during sleep| it is not correlated with epilepsy.Causes of neonatal seizures:Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy: Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy disrupts the ATP-dependent sodium-potassium pump and appears to cause excessive depolarization.Intracranial haemorrhage: occurs more frequently in premature than in term infants. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is more common in term infants. This type of haemorrhage occurs frequently and is not clinically significant. Typically, infants with subarachnoid haemorrhage appear remarkably well. Metabolic disturbances include hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia. Less frequent metabolic disorders, such as inborn errors of metabolism, are seen more commonly in infants who are older than 72 hours. Typically, they may be seen after the infant starts feeding.Intracranial infections (which should be ruled out vigorously) that are important causes of neonatal seizures include meningitis, encephalitis (including herpes encephalitis), toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. The common bacterial pathogens include Escherichia coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae.Cerebral malformationsBenign neonatal seizures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?
Your Answer: Ectoderm
Explanation:The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 26
Correct
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Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?
Your Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby boy who is well feed and thriving, but jaundiced?
Your Answer: Coombs’ test
Correct Answer: Total serum bilirubin
Explanation:Usually, a total serum bilirubin level test is the only one required in an infant with moderate jaundice who presents on the second or third day of life without a history and physical findings suggestive of a pathologic process. Measurement of bilirubin fractions (conjugated vs unconjugated) in serum is not usually required in infants who present as described above. However, in infants who have hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, or other findings suggestive of hepatobiliary disease, metabolic disorder, or congenital infection, early measurement of bilirubin fractions is suggested. The same may apply to infants who remain jaundiced beyond the first 7-10 days of life, and to infants whose total serum bilirubin levels repeatedly rebound following treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)
Explanation:Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation. What is the most important diagnostic test?
Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Upper GI contrast study
Explanation:Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum| instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20 weeks gestation, which of the following may be an associated adverse condition in the neonate?
Your Answer: Floppy baby syndrome
Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Treatment of depression is an important component of maternal and neonatal health. The use of SSRIs and antidepressants in the first trimester are unlikely to carry any congenital risks. However the use of the antidepressants closer to delivery may result in some respiratory, motor, gastrointestinal and central nervous system problems, with the most concerning of these being persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. Other conditions such as cleft palate, jaundice, neural tube defects or floppy baby syndrome have not been shown to occur with SSRI use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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