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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer: Sevoflurane 1 MAC
Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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The population incidence of a disease is best described by?
Your Answer: The number of new cases of a disease per population in a defined period
Explanation:The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period.
The prevalence of a disease is the number of cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period describes. It is NOT the number of new cases.
The number of new cases of a disease only, has no denominator (time period or population) from which to derive an incidence.
The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment is the incidence of patients seeking medical treatment NOT the incidence of the disease in a population.
The death rate from a disease is the number of patients dying from the disease in a population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.
Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.
Explanation:Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:
Cardiac measurements:
Heart rate
Systolic pressure
Diastolic pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Pulse pressure
Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosisFrom the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:
Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
Bisferiens wave in HOCM
Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficientFor this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:
dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1
Explanation:The degree of correlation is summarised by the correlation coefficient (r). This indicates how closely the points lie to a line drawn through the plotted data. In parametric data this is called Pearson’s correlation coefficient and can take any value between -1 to +1. A correlation of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, and a correlation of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation.
For example
r = 1 – strong positive correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always increases with age)
r = 0 – no correlation (e.g. there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age)
r = – 1 – strong negative correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always decreases with age)
Whilst correlation coefficients give information about how one variable may increase or decrease as another variable increases they do not give information about how much the variable will change. They also do not provide information on cause and effect.
In contrast to the correlation coefficient, linear regression may be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.
Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.
No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.
An alternative strategy can then be planned.
The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.
Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The systemic vascular resistance rises
Explanation:The umbilical vein closes once the umbilical cord is clamped following birth. This causes a rise in systemic vascular resistance, closing the ductus venosus.
Upon birth, the pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased as the lungs are aerated.
At birth, there is a rise in oxygen tension which causes the corresponding constriction of the ductus arteriosus. This prevents a left to right shunt as it stops aortic blood and blood from the pulmonary artery from mixing. The ventricles do no have an opening connecting them.
The foramen ovale closes soon after birth. It is the septum opening between the left and right atrium.
An adult’s cardiac output is expected to be 5 L/min
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made.
Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvisThe appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.
The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is scheduled for squint surgery requiring general anaesthesia.
To begin, she is given sevoflurane for the inhalation induction, then intravenous access is established along with the insertion of a supraglottic airway. Anaesthesia is maintained with fentanyl 1 mcg/kg, with an air/oxygen/sevoflurane mix with spontaneous respirations.
Once the surgery begins, her pulse rate drastically reduces from 120 beats/min to 8 beats/min.
What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tell surgeon to stop surgical retraction
Explanation:This sudden change in pulse rate is due to the oculocardiac reflex. It is a >20% reduction in pulse rate as a result of placing pressure directly on the eyeball. The reflex arc has an afferent and efferent arm:
The afferent (sensory) arm: The trigeminal nerve (CN V)
The efferent arm: The vagus nerve (CN X)
The most appropriate action is to ask the surgeon to stop retraction of the extraocular muscles, Assess for hypoxia, and give 100% oxygen if indicated.
Atropine of glycopyrrolate can be administered to counteract the reflex, and also prevent any further vagal reflexes.
Administration of fentanyl may increase patient’s risk of bradycardia and sinus arrest in this case.
Adrenaline is not indicated here as other treatment options will provide sufficient relief from arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the grooveMid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
nerves:
Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
Radial groove: radial nerve.
Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.
An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.
The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:
The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.
The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.
The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.
The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and during the surgery, the inferior parathyroid gland is found to be enlarged. There is a vessel adjacent to this gland on its lateral side.
What is this vessel most likely to be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common carotid artery
Explanation:There are four parathyroid glands that lie on the medial half of the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland, inside its sheath. There are two superior and two inferior parathyroid glands.
The common carotid artery is a lateral relation of the inferior parathyroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.
The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.
The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an expected change in pulmonary function seen during a moderate asthma attack?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1)
Explanation:Asthma is a lung condition that causes reversible narrowing and swelling of airway passages. It is classified by the frequency and severity of symptoms.
The following are symptoms of moderate asthma:
Symptoms include cough, wheezing, chest tightness, or difficulty breathing which occurs daily
Decreased activity levels due to flare-ups
Night-time symptoms 5 or more times a month
Lung function test FEV1 is 60-80% of predicted normal values
Peak flow has more than 30% variabilityWith moderate asthma attacks, the arterial pCO2 levels may decrease, but as severity increases, so does the pCO2, reaching normal levels, and then exceeding them in severe asthma attacks.
Airway obstruction increases the functional residual capacity.
Concentration of serum bicarbonate would not increase in moderate asthma, but it could possibly increase in life-threatening asthma via the same mechanism as what increases arterial PCO2.
FEV1 is a good measure of airway obstruction. and is reduced in acute asthma attacks.
In the case of a pneumothorax, a decrease in arterial PO2 is higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.
Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate action that should follow is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change
Explanation:Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.
Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.
A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.
Explanation:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.
Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.
They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.
It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.
Early foetal pulse decelerations can be seen on the cardiotocograph, and a recent foetal scalp blood sample revealed a pH of 7.25.
Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time
Explanation:Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.
There are four types of caesarean section urgency:
Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.
In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.
The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.
There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.
If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit.
You've been summoned to examine the patient because he's become oliguric.
Which of the following is most likely to indicate that acute kidney injury is caused by a prerenal cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum urea: creatinine ratio 200
Explanation:Prerenal failure has a serum urea: creatinine ratio of >100, while acute kidney injury has a ratio of 40.
In prerenal failure, ADH levels are typically high, resulting in water, urea, and sodium resorption. The fractional sodium excretion is less than 1%, but it is greater than 2% in acute tubular necrosis.
Prerenal azotaemia has higher serum urea nitrogen/serum creatinine ratios (>20), whereas acute tubular necrosis has lower ratios (10-15). The normal range is between 12 and 20.
Urinary sodium is less than 20 in prerenal failure and greater than 40 in acute tubular necrosis.
Prerenal failure has a urine osmolality of >500, while acute tubular necrosis has an osmolality of 350.
Prerenal failure has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of >40, while acute tubular necrosis has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of 20.The concentrations of serum urea or creatinine change in inverse proportion to glomerular filtration. Changes in serum creatinine concentrations are more reliable than changes in serum urea concentrations in predicting GFR. Creatinine is produced at a constant rate from creatine, and blood concentrations are almost entirely determined by GFR.
A number of factors influence urea formation, including liver function, protein intake, and protein catabolism rate. Urea excretion is also influenced by hydration status, the amount of water reabsorption, and GFR.
A high serum creatinine level, as well as a urine output of less than 10 mL/hour and the production of concentrated looking urine, do not necessarily indicate a specific cause of oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.
Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute
Explanation:Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.
Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.
It is represented mathematically as:
Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
where,
U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)Therefore, in this case:
CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple exposure
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.
Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and severe headache. On examination, the blood pressure recorded was consistently raised at 190/110. Subsequently, she was admitted to the labour ward as a case of pre-eclampsia.
A loading dose of IV magnesium sulphate 4g is given, followed by a 1g/hour infusion.
The most suitable parameter to access magnesium toxicity is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tendon reflexes
Explanation:Magnesium is a very important cation due to its various physiological roles in the body. This includes:
– playing the role of a cofactor in many enzymatic reactions
– influencing hormone receptor binding
– affecting calcium channels
– impact on cardiac, vascular and neural cellsMagnesium sulphate is used as first line in the treatment of eclampsia. Moreover, it has some preventive role in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. All the clinical effects of magnesium are in line with its plasma concentration.
The first sign of magnesium toxicity in obstetric patients is the loss of patellar reflex, which is regularly monitored during treatment. The other options are all late signs of magnesium toxicity.
Whenever there is a doubt, serum magnesium levels should always be monitored.
The table below correlates the effects of increased levels of magnesium on the body:
Plasma Concentration
(mmol/L) Effect
0.7-1.2 Normal
4-8 Decreased deep tendon reflexes, nausea, headache, weakness, malaise, lethargy and facial flushing
5-10 ECG changes (prolonged PR, prolonged QT, and widened QRS)
10 Muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes, hypotension
15 SA/AV nodal block, respiratory paralysis and depression
20 Cardiac arrest -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALA synthetase
Explanation:Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.
There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding correlation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete absence of correlation is expressed by a value of 0
Explanation:In statistical terms, correlation is used to denote association between two quantitative variables.
The degree of association is measured by a correlation coefficient, denoted by r. The correlation coefficient is measured on a scale that varies from + 1 through 0 to – 1. Complete correlation between two variables is expressed by either + 1 or -1. When one variable increases as the other increases the correlation is positive; when one decreases as the other increases it is negative. Complete absence of correlation is represented by 0.
The two methods are not synonymous as correlation measures the degree of relationship between two variables whereas regression analysis is about how one variable affects another or what changes it has on the other variable. Both are also shown by a different graphical representation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a certain population.
Analysis has revealed that there is a strong positive correlation between height and forced expiratory volume (FEV1).
Which of the following statistical technique can be utilized to predict FEV1 at any given height in this cohort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear regression
Explanation:A forest plot is a graphical representation that summarizes the findings of several research, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.
The Kaplan-Meier estimate shows survival over time, for example, plotting the number of patients still alive seven years after chemotherapy for lung cancer.
Fisher’s exact test similarly uses contingency tables to assess statistical significance, however, it is typically used when sample sizes are small.
Chi-square test assesses whether an association exists between two categorical variables using the observed and expected frequencies. For instance, is social class (I-V) related to body mass index (BMI) category? Using the observed and anticipated frequencies, the Chi-square test determines whether a connection exists between two categorical variables. For example, is socio-economic status related to BMI category?
Linear regression is a technique which attempts to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. Linear regression uses correlation between two continuous variables. As correlation only indicates the strength of an association only, it cannot be used to forecast the change in one variable when a second variable is altered.
This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. In this example, for a range of heights, it would be possible to map a line of best fit to a scatter plot and thus predict the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) for an individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.
The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.
PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be “blind” on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year old male who was involved in a road traffic accident has had to receive a large blood transfusion of whole blood which is two weeks old. Which of these best describes the oxygen carrying capacity of this blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It will have an increased affinity for oxygen
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which term among the following is used for the proportion of a particular disease that would be eradicated from a population if the rate of disease were to be reduced to that of the group that has not been exposed to it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attributable proportion
Explanation:The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it. It involves the measure of association that is pertinent to making decisions for the individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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