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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine:

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Common adverse effects include nausea and vomiting, sedation, dizziness, headache, blurred vision and ataxia. These adverse effects are dose related and are most common at the start of treatment.
      Other adverse effects include:
      Allergic skin reactions (and rarely, more serious dermatological conditions)
      Hyponatraemia (avoid concomitant use with diuretics)
      Leucopenia, thrombocytopenia and other blood disorders including aplastic anaemia
      Hepatic impairment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      22.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man has a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait. Parkinson's disease is caused by one of the following mechanisms:

      Your Answer: Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is one of the most common neurologic disorders, affecting approximately 1% of individuals older than 60 years and causing progressive disability that can be slowed but not halted, by treatment. The 2 major neuropathologic findings in Parkinson’s disease are loss of pigmented dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra pars compacta and the presence of Lewy bodies and Lewy neurites. See the images below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      26.5
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer: Resting tremor

      Explanation:

      An intention tremor is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction. Resting tremor may be seen in Parkinsonism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      49.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?

      Your Answer: Left temporal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual loss in the lower left quadrant in both visual fields is an indication of an inferior homonymous. This is due to a lesion of the superior fibres of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe on the contralateral side of the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      48
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect:

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of lithium Include

      Leucocytosis (most patients)
      Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      Dry mouth (20-50%)
      Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      Confusion (40%)
      Decreased memory (40%)
      Headache (40%)
      Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      Hyperreflexia (15%)
      Muscle twitch (15%)
      Vertigo (15%)
      Extrapyramidal symptoms, goitre (5%)
      Hypothyroidism (1-4%)
      Acne (1%)
      Hair thinning (1%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      17.1
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus....

    Correct

    • You proceed to administer lorazepam intravenously to a 21-year-old patient with status epilepticus. Which of the following best describes lorazepam's action?

      Your Answer: Potentiates effect of GABA

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is a type of benzodiazepine.

      Benzodiazepines are gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor agonists with sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant characteristics that promote inhibitory synaptic transmission across the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      42.2
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis.

      Which of these blood vessels has most likely been occluded?

      Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) occlusion is characterised by vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis. PICA occlusion causes infarction of the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis and lateral medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      45.3
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer: Scanning/staccato speech

      Correct Answer: Hypertonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia means decreased muscle tone. It can be a condition on its own, called benign congenital hypotonia, or it can be indicative of another problem where there is progressive loss of muscle tone, such as muscular dystrophy or cerebral palsy. It is usually detected during infancy. Hypotonia is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      62.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Regarding aspirin at analgesic doses, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding aspirin at analgesic doses, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The analgesic dose is smaller than the antiplatelet dose.

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in patients with severe heart failure.

      Explanation:

      Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in severe heart failure. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes resulting in decreased production of prostaglandins (which can lead to irritation of the gastric mucosa). The analgesic dose is greater than the antiplatelet dose, and taken orally it has a duration of action of about 4 hours. Clinical features of salicylate toxicity in overdose include hyperventilation, tinnitus, deafness, vasodilatation, and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      47.8
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he is febrile and Kernig's sign is positive. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected and a lumbar puncture was to be performed.

      Which of the following statements regarding meningitis is true?

      Your Answer: The dura mater is the outermost layer

      Explanation:

      Meningitis is defined as the inflammation of the meninges due to an infection caused by a bacteria or a virus. Symptoms usually include stiffness of the neck, headache, and fever.
      There are 3 meningeal layers that surround the spinal cord and they are the dura mater, arachnoid matter, and pia mater.

      The dura mater is the outermost and thickest layer out of all the 3 layers.
      The arachnoid atter is the middle layer, and is very thin.
      The third and deepest meningeal layer is the pia mater that is bound tightly to the surface of the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      40.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (5/10) 50%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
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