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Question 1
Correct
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One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:
Your Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.
The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:
suxamethonium: 0.27
rocuronium: 0.31
vecuronium: 0.04
pancuronium: 0.07
cisatracurium: 0.04
mivacurium: 0.08 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.
If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?Your Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.
Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?Your Answer: Highly protein bound
Correct Answer: Highly ionised
Explanation:Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)
The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:
Protein binding
Degree of ionisation
Placental blood flow
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Thickness of placental membrane
Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.
The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?Your Answer: Bernoulli's principle
Explanation:Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.
When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.
The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.
The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer: The fetal haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left compared with maternal haemoglobin
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).
During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.
Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.Your Answer: 4 METs
Correct Answer: 6 METs
Explanation:Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.
It is calculated mathematically by:
MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs
Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:
Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)
Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?Your Answer: 288-294
Correct Answer: 300-313
Explanation:Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.
Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:
Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L
Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)
Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?
Your Answer: Endemic
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man is being operated on for a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach.
Which structure needs to be divided to gain access to the coeliac axis?Your Answer: Gastrosplenic ligament
Correct Answer: Lesser omentum
Explanation:The lesser omentum will need to be divided. This forms one of the nodal stations that will need to be taken during a radical gastrectomy.
The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteries -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true.
Your Answer: Secretion is increased following haematemesis
Explanation:Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.
Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?Your Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl
Explanation:Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).
Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.
Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.
Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer: Right vagus nerve
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg.
The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?Your Answer: Using ultrasound to identify the caudal epidural space
Correct Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg
Explanation:Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.
The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.
The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.
Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.
Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.
The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?
Your Answer: The portal triad comprises the hepatic artery, hepatic vein and tributary of the bile duct
Correct Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis
Explanation:Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.
The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.
The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.
The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?
Your Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle
Explanation:Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.
Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.
It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.
The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.
It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?Your Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(Age + 4) 2 = Weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.
The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.
The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.
To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.
When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.
Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute.
Which value best approximates to the FiO2?Your Answer: 0.8
Correct Answer: 0.6
Explanation:A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.
For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.
The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical student, observes the surgery but is asked to scrub in and assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts the laryngoscope and asks Alex to locate the larynx.
What anatomical landmark corresponds to the position of the larynx?Your Answer: C5
Correct Answer: C3-C6
Explanation:The larynx is an air passage, sphincter, and organ of phonation that extends from the tongue to the trachea. It lies in the anterior part of the neck at the vertebral levels C3 to C6.
Important anatomical landmarks:
C1-C2 – Atlas and axis, respectivelyC3-C6 – Larynx
C5 – Thyroid cartilage
T5-T7 – Pulmonary hilum
T12-L1 – Duodenum
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?
Your Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.
They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.
There are 2 different types:
Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Correct
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About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?
Your Answer: Is excreted in the urine
Explanation:Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.
There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.
LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.
There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)
LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer: L1
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?
Your Answer: Kataria
Explanation:Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.
Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.
The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.
The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults
The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.
The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration
Explanation:Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.
Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.
Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.
Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:
Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?
Your Answer: (R)-norketamine
Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.
The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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