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Question 1
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A 66-year-old man with a haemorrhagic stroke is admitted to the medical admissions unit.
He has been taking warfarin for a long time because of atrial fibrillation. His INR at the time of admission was 9.1.
Which of the following treatment options is the most effective in managing his condition?Your Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.
For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.
The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.
To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.
Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures.
Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?Your Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Explanation:When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:
Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):
If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):
If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)
Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)
If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 66-year-old man, present to the emergency department with dyspepsia. On history taking, he admits to being a heavy smoker, and on testing is noted to be positive for a helicobacter pylori infection. A few evenings later, he suffers from haematemesis and collapses.
What vessel is most likely to be involved?Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The most likely of the differential diagnosis in this case is a duodenal ulcer located on the posterior abdominal wall.
These can cause an erosion of the abdominal wall, eventually affecting the gastroduodenal artery and resulting in major bleeding and haematemesis.
Gastroduodenal artery supplies the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head (via the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?
Your Answer: (S)-ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.
The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?
Your Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1
Explanation:The following units are derived SI units of measurement.
Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.Power: kg.m2.s-3
The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.Force: kg.m.s-2
One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:
Your Answer: Class III equipment uses Safety Extra Low Voltage and avoids the risk of microshock
Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts
Explanation:There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:
Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply
Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.
Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.
Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)
Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.
Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 7
Correct
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When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?
Your Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines
Explanation:The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.
In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.
A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.
A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.
The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.
What kind of bias is in this experiment?Your Answer: Recall bias
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.
Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.
Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.
Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.
Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate action that should follow is:Your Answer: Observe the patient for further change
Explanation:Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.
Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.
A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.
Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?Your Answer: Villi
Explanation:The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis Externa
4. AdventitiaIntestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.
In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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