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Question 1
Correct
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Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.
Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?Your Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple
Explanation:Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).
All of the other connections are non-linear.
For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.
A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.
A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.
The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 2
Correct
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Correct
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A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.
Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?
Your Answer: Dynamic second-order response
Explanation:The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:Zero-order:
Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.First-order:
Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.Second-order
Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.
Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?Your Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson D breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing tidal volume breaths for three minutes
Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths
Explanation:This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:
Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
Increased closing capacity (CC)
Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Incorrect
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International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.
Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?Your Answer: White body, white/brown shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 6
Incorrect
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With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?
Your Answer: Require three connection leads for the skin, needle and the earth
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.
There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.
Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.
If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.
Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.
Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator.
Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.Your Answer: Inductor
Correct Answer: Rectifier
Explanation:There are two types of defibrillators
AC defibrillator
DC defibrillatorAC defibrillator,
consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.DC defibrillator,
consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.
Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.
Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.
In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter?
Your Answer: Isobestic points occur at 490 and 805 nm
Correct Answer: Is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation
Explanation:The pulse oximeter provides a continuous non-invasive measurement of the arterial oxygen saturation. The light emitting diodes (LEDs) produce beams of red and infrared light at 660 nm and 940 nm respectively (not 640 and 960 nm), which travel through a finger (toe, ear lobe or nose) and are then detected by a sensitive photodetector.
The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is constant (DC), and the non-constant absorption (AC) is the result of arterial blood pulsation. The DC and AC components at 660 and 940 nm are then analysed by the microprocessor and the result is related to the arterial saturation.
An isosbestic point is a point at which two substances absorb a wavelength of light to the same degree. In pulse oximetry the different absorption profiles of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin are used to quantify the haemoglobin saturation (in %). Isosbestic points occur at 590 and 805 nm (not 490 and 805 nm), where the light absorbed is independent of the degree of saturation, and are used as reference points.
The pulse oximeter is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation, and below 70% the readings are extrapolated. Pulse oximeters average their readings every 10 to 20 seconds and thus they cannot detect acute desaturation events. Consequently, they are often referred to as ‘lag’ monitors, due to the time delay in identifying the desaturation episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?
Your Answer: Length of tube
Correct Answer: Diameter of tube
Explanation:Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:
1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
2. Few directional changes
3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminarPoiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure?
Your Answer: 4 bar for oxygen
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Pipeline gases (in the UK this includes: Oxygen, Nitrous oxide, Medical air, and Entonox) are supplied at 4 bar (or 400 kPa), and compressed air is supplied at 7 bar for power tools.
Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide are usually only supplied in cylinders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 11
Correct
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Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm
Explanation:Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.
End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.
There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 12
Correct
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Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature
Explanation:A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.
Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 13
Correct
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When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?
Your Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry
Explanation:Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.
For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts
Explanation:The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.
These are the following:
ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.
Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffusion
Explanation:Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.
Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
Red blood cell – 5 µm
Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:Sieve:
The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.Interception:
When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
Diffusion:A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.Electrostatic:
These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.
Impaction due to inertia:
When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately
Explanation:When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.
There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.
The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.
Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)
Explanation:Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.
Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.
Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.
Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.
Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A current flows through a simple electric circuit.
Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 19
Incorrect
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When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to bipolar diathermy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a power output of up to 140 joules per second
Explanation:Electrocautery, also known as diathermy, is a technique for coagulation, tissue cutting, and fulguration that uses a high-frequency current to generate heat (cell destruction from dehydration).
The two electrodes in bipolar diathermy are the tips of forceps, and current passes between the tips rather than through the patient. Bipolar diathermy’s power output (40-140 W) is lower than unipolar diathermy’s typical output (400 W). There is no earthing in the bipolar circuit.
A cutting electrode and a indifferent electrode in the form of a metal plate are used in unipolar diathermy. The high-frequency current completes a circuit by passing through the patient from the active electrode to the metal plate. When used correctly, the current density at the indifferent electrode is low, and the patient is unlikely to be burned. Between the patient plate and the earth is placed an isolating capacitor. This has a low impedance to a high frequency current, such as diathermy current, and is used in modern diathermy machines. The capacitor has a high impedance to current at 50 Hz, which protects the patient from electrical shock.
High frequency currents (500 KHz – 1 MHz) are used in both unipolar and bipolar diathermy, which can cause tissue damage and interfere with pacemaker function (less so with bipolar diathermy).
The effect of diathermy is determined by the current density and waveform employed. The current is a pulsed square wave pattern in coagulation mode and a continuous square wave pattern in cutting mode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.
Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles
Explanation:Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.
Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.
Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.
Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The oxygen concentration delivered by high air flow oxygen enrichment devices is not dependent on the respiratory pattern of the patient
Explanation:The normal peak inspiratory flow in healthy individuals is 20-30 L/min during each normal tidal ventilation. This is expected to increase with greater respiratory rate and deeper inspiration.
Face masks are used to facilitate the delivery of oxygen from a breathing system to a patient. Face masks can be divided into two types: fixed performance or variable performance devices.
In fixed performance devices (also known as high air flow oxygen enrichment or HAFOE), fixed inspired oxygen concentration is delivered to the patent, independent and greater than that of the patient’s peak inspiratory flow rate (PIFR). No random entrainment is expected to occur at the time of PIFR, hence, the oxygen concentration in HAFOE devices is not dependent on the patient’s respiratory pattern.
Moreover, in HAFOE masks, the concentration of oxygen at a given oxygen flow rate is determined by the size of the constriction; a device with a greater entrainment aperture delivers a lower oxygen concentration. Therefore, a 40% Venturi device will have lesser entrainment aperture when compared to a 31% Venturi. Venturi masks allow relatively fixed concentrations of supplemental oxygen to be inspired e.g. 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40% and 60% oxygen. These are colour coded and marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate.
Variable performance devices deliver variable inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, and is dependent on the PIFR. The PIFR can often exceed the flow rate at which oxygen or an oxygen/air mixture is supplied by the device, depending on a patient’s inspiratory effort. In addition, these masks allow expired air to be released through the holes in the sides of the mask. Thus, with increased respiratory rate, rebreathing of alveolar gas from inside the mask may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart
Explanation:Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.
The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.
The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 23
Incorrect
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For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using 100% oxygen and a fresh gas flow equal to the patient's minute ventilation.
Which would be the most suitable choice of anaesthetic breathing system in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mapleson A system
Explanation:The Mapleson A (Magill) and coaxial version of the Mapleson A system (Lack circuit) are more efficient for spontaneous breathing than any of the other Mapleson circuits. The fresh gas flow (FGF) required to prevent rebreathing is slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation (4-5 litres/minute). This is delivered to the patient through the outer coaxial tube and exhaust gases are moved to the scavenging system through the inner tube. In the Lack circuit, the expiratory valve is located close to the common gas outlet away from the patient end. This is the main advantage of the Lack circuit over the Mapleson A circuit.
The Mapleson E circuit is a modification of the Ayres T piece and the FGF required to prevent rebreathing is 1.5-2 times the patient’s minute volume.
The Bain circuit is the coaxial version of the Mapleson D circuit.
The FGF for spontaneous respiration to avoid rebreathing is 160-200 ml/kg/minute.
The FGF for controlled ventilation to avoid rebreathing is 70-100 ml/kg/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are preparing to anaesthetize a 27-year-old woman for an acute diagnostic laparoscopy to rule out appendicitis.
She has no medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis. You're going to do a quick sequence induction.
Which method of preoxygenation is the most effective and efficient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mapleson A circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg
Explanation:Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.
The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.
The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.
During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.
The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 25
Incorrect
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From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second
Explanation:Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.
At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure
Explanation:Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).
The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.
Calculations can be made as follows:
Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
2% of 100 = 2 kPaAltitude, pressure 50 kPa
4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
4% of 50 = 2 kPaHigh pressure at 200 kPa
1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
1% of 200 = 2 kPaSevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.
How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 92 minutes
Explanation:The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2
Where:
P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.Substituting values into the equation:
230 × 2 = 1 x V2
V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters
Explanation:Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.
Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.
Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.
Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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