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  • Question 1 - Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine into choline and acetate. Both of these molecules are transported back to the presynaptic neuron to be synthesized again. This enzyme is attached to the collagen fibers of the basement membrane in the synaptic cleft.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The process in which tissue thromboplastin activates factor VII is best known as:...

    Correct

    • The process in which tissue thromboplastin activates factor VII is best known as:

      Your Answer: The extrinsic pathway

      Explanation:

      In the tissue factor pathway (extrinsic), following damage to the blood vessel, FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following structures is not part of the conducting system of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is not part of the conducting system of the heart?

      Your Answer: Ventricular wall

      Explanation:

      The conduction system of the heart consists of the SA node, AV node, internodal pathway between these two nodes, Bundle of His and the purkinje fibers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?...

    Correct

    • The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?

      Your Answer: 1 – 2 cell layers

      Explanation:

      Hepatic plates in a hepatic lobule are arranged in 1-2 cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Correct

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Coronary blood flow occurs in? ...

    Correct

    • Coronary blood flow occurs in?

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries are unique in that they fill during diastole, when not occluded by valve cusps nor compressed by myocardial contraction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart ...

    Correct

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart

      Your Answer: 2nd left costal to 3rd right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The base of the heart, also known as the superior border of the heart corresponds to a line connecting the inferior border of the 2nd left costal cartilage to the superior border of the 3rd right costal cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Near the transcription site of a gene, the site at which RNA polymerase...

    Correct

    • Near the transcription site of a gene, the site at which RNA polymerase and its cofactors bind is known as the:

      Your Answer: Promotor

      Explanation:

      Transcription will begin when the RNA polymerase II binds to the promotor. The promotor is a sequence of 25 nucleotides found upstream from the start site of transcription. This promotor sequence is known as the TATA box. Transcription factors also bond along with RNA polymerase to this site to form a complex. However some may bind to regulatory elements proximal to the promotor site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What causes increased insulin sensitivity? ...

    Correct

    • What causes increased insulin sensitivity?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Physical activity, through its effect on insulin sensitivity, is one of the main modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes. It is estimated that by each weekly 500 kcal increment in exercise related energy consumption, the lifetime risk of suffering from type 2 diabetes is reduced by 9%. Up to two hours after exercise, glucose uptake is elevated due to insulin independent mechanisms; however, insulin sensitivity remains increased for at least 16 hours after exercising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness: ...

    Correct

    • A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness:

      Your Answer: In the eye on the same side as the optic nerve

      Explanation:

      The optic nerve on each side contains medial and lateral fibers originating from the retina. Medial fibers cross at the optic chiasm and become the optic tract ending in the visual cortex of the occipital lobe. If there is a lesion interrupting the “optic nerve” on one side, the same side eye will be completely blind.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Correct

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting?

      Your Answer: Cannabinoids

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron, chlorpromazine and haloperidol are effective antiemetic agents. Corticosteroids, cannabinoids, and benzodiazepines, alone or in combination with 5-HT3 and D2 antagonists, are also useful in the treatment of vomiting produced by chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to...

    Correct

    • A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent on the heart?

      Your Answer: It decreases the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole

      Explanation:

      Inotropic agents increase the contractility of the heart as well as the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole, generating a greater pressure and increasing the stroke volume e.g. like catecholamines do.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?

      Your Answer: Gram positive cocci

      Correct Answer: Gram negative cocci

      Explanation:

      Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer: Camouflage creams

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Correct

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The cavernous sinus is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cavernous sinus is?

      Your Answer: Medial to the body of the sphenoid

      Correct Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Cortex

      Correct Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Habituation… ...

    Correct

    • Habituation…

      Your Answer: Is a simple form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is repeated many times

      Explanation:

      It is a simple form of learning where an organism decreases or ceases it’s response to a certain stimuli after repeated presentation. The organisms learns to stop responding to a stimulus which is no longer biologically relevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is associated with right ventricular failure

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?

      Your Answer: Median eminence

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Numbers needed to harm

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time. The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which caspase is part of both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which caspase is part of both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways?

      Your Answer: Caspase-4

      Correct Answer: Caspase-3

      Explanation:

      Once initiator caspases are activated in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, they produce a chain reaction, activating several other executioner caspases (Caspase 3, Caspase 6 and Caspase 7).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      161.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (23/29) 79%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (7/8) 88%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Research Skills (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Cell Biology (1/2) 50%
Passmed