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  • Question 1 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include:

      Your Answer: Anabolic steroids

      Correct Answer: Heptitis E

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma include hepatitis B and C, aflatoxin, anabolic steroids, alcohol cirrhosis and primary liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Among all body organs, the brain is most susceptible to ischaemia. Comprising of only 2.5% of total body weight, the brain receives 15% of the cardiac output. Oxygen extraction is also higher with venous oxygen levels approximating 13 vol%, and arteriovenous oxygen difference of 7 vol%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels...

    Incorrect

    • For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels is the best source of venous blood to determine the arterial-to-venous oxygen tension difference?

      Your Answer: Jugular vein

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Fick’s principle states that the total uptake (or release) of a substance by peripheral tissues is equal to the product of the blood flow to the peripheral tissues and the arterial– venous concentration difference (gradient) of the substance. It is used to measure the cardiac output, and the formula is Cardiac output = oxygen consumption divided by arteriovenous oxygen difference. Assuming there are no shunts across the pulmonary system, the pulmonary blood flow equals the systemic blood flow. The arterial and venous blood oxygen content is measured by sampling from the pulmonary artery (low oxygen content) and pulmonary vein (high oxygen content). Peripheral arterial blood is used as a surrogate for the pulmonary vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Mesothelium

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case of breast carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Axillary lymph node metastases

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic spread indicates poor prognosis. Presence of family history is not a prognostic factor despite being linked to higher incidence. Aneuploidy is a poor prognostic factor. A breast tumour positive for oestrogen receptors is a good prognostic factor as it increases the responsiveness of the tumour to certain therapies. In-situ tumours carry the best prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where is the foramen ovale located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the foramen ovale located?

      Your Answer: Ethmoid

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an oval shaped opening in the middle cranial fossa located at the posterior base of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, lateral to the lingula. It transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN Vc), accessory meningeal artery, emissary veins between the cavernous sinuses and pterygoid plexus, otic ganglion, and occasionally the nervus spinosus and lesser petrosal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought in for emergency surgery to control the bleeding. Angiography results revealed an advanced duodenal tumour that had perforated the blood vessel immediately behind the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following is the most likely blood vessel that was ruptured by the cancer?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is the artery that lies just behind the first portion of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery would be the most likely artery to be perforated by a cancer in this area. The perforation is as a result of the spillage of the acidic content of the chyme in the duodenum. All the other blood vessels in the list would less likely be affected by the gastric expellant from the duodenum. The coronary vein is located in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal arcade is located inferiorly to the first part of the duodenum on the head of the pancreas. The hepatic artery proper is a branch of the common hepatic artery that is located superior to the first portion of the duodenum. The splenic vein arises from the spleen; it forms the portal vein by joining the superior mesenteric vein. It is laterally detached from the duodenum. Both the left gastric vein and the splenic vein are located superior to the first portion of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      85.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy....

    Correct

    • During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy. As the scope is passed down the trachea, you see a cartilaginous structure that resembles a ship's keel and separates the right and the left main stem bronchi. This structure is the:

      Your Answer: Carina

      Explanation:

      The carina (a keel-like cartilage) is found at the bifurcation of the trachea separating the right from the left main stem bronchi. It is a little more to the left than to the right.

      The cricoid cartilage is the inferior and posterior cartilage of the larynx.

      The costal cartilage on the other hand elongates the ribs anteriorly and contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage.

      The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Tracheal rings are rings of cartilage that support the trachea.

      Peritracheal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea from the outside and is not visible on bronchoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to...

    Correct

    • After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Foramen of Luschka

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man who has been trekking in the Himalayas for 3 years?

      Your Answer: Decreased haematocrit

      Correct Answer: Increased renal excretion of HCO3 –

      Explanation:

      The atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes as compared with sea level. This leads to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen. Once 2100 m (7000 feet) of altitude is reached, there is a drop in saturation of oxyhaemoglobin. The oxygen saturation of haemoglobin determines the oxygen content in the blood. The body physiological tries to adapt to high altitude by acclimatization. Immediate effects include hyperventilation, fluid loss (due to a decreased thirst drive), increase in heart rate and slightly lowered stroke volume. Long term effects include lower lactate production, compensatory alkali loss in urine, decrease in plasma volume, increased erythropoietin release and red cell mass, increased haematocrit, higher concentration of capillaries in striated muscle tissue, increase in myoglobin, increase in mitochondria, increase in aerobic enzyme concentration such as 2,3-DPG and pulmonary vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?...

    Incorrect

    • Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac

      Correct Answer: Aortic

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of an organ is related to its blood supply. The lymphatic drainage of the testis drains along the testicular artery to reach the lymph nodes along the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Incorrect

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancrease which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreas is the superior mesenteric vein. The neck of the pancreas lies anterior to the superior mesenteric vein, which joins with the splenic vein to form the portal vein.

      The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is also located in proximity to the neck of the pancreas. Specifically, the SMA emerges from the abdominal aorta just below the level of the pancreas and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas before it descends into the mesentery to supply the intestines. Thus, both the superior mesenteric vein and the superior mesenteric artery are key vascular structures related to the posterior aspect of the neck of the pancreas.

      Bleeding out would suggest an arterial injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial expression

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:

      Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal

      – Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear

      – Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

      Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear

      – Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to result in an increased secretion of which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The hypophyseal portal system links the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. With the help of this system, the anterior pituitary receives releasing and inhibitory hormones from the hypothalamus and regulates the action of other endocrine glands. One of the inhibitory hormones carried by this system is the prolactin-inhibitory hormone. In the absence of this hormone which might occur in case of a blockage of the system, prolactin secretion increases to about three times normal levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old female had a painful abdomen and several episodes of vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female had a painful abdomen and several episodes of vomiting. She was severely dehydrated when she was brought to the hospital. Her ABG showed a pH 7.7, p(O2) 75 mmHg, p(CO2) 46 mmHg and bicarbonate 48 mmol/l. The most likely interpretation of this ABG report would be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a primary increase in bicarbonate (HCO3−) with or without compensatory increase in carbon dioxide partial pressure (Pco2); pH may be high or nearly normal. Metabolic alkalosis occurs as a consequence of a loss of H+ from the body or a gain in HCO3 -. In its pure form, it manifests as alkalemia (pH >7.40). As a compensatory mechanism, metabolic alkalosis leads to alveolar hypoventilation with a rise in arterial carbon dioxide tension p(CO2), which diminishes the change in pH that would otherwise occur. Normally, arterial p(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mmol/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that occurs very rapidly. If the change in p(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs. Likewise, if the increase in p(CO2) is less than the expected change, then a primary respiratory alkalosis is also present. However an elevated serum bicarbonate concentration can also occur due to a compensatory response to primary respiratory acidosis. A bicarbonate concentration greater than 35 mmol/l is almost always caused by metabolic alkalosis (as is the case in this clinical scenario). Calculation of the serum anion gap can also help to differentiate between primary metabolic alkalosis and the metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis. The anion gap is frequently elevated to a modest degree in metabolic alkalosis because of the increase in the negative charge of albumin and the enhanced production of lactate. However, the only definitive way to diagnose metabolic alkalosis is by performing a simultaneous blood gases analysis, which reveals elevation of both pH and arterial p(CO2) and increased calculated bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125 ml, with a tidal volume of 500 ml and pa(CO2) of 40 mm Hg. The dead space was determined by Fowler's method. If we assume that the patient's lungs are healthy, what will his mixed expired CO2 tension [pE(CO2)] be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 mmHg

      Explanation:

      According to Bohr’s equation, VD/VT = (pA(CO2) − pE(CO2))/pA(CO2), where pE(CO2) is mixed expired CO2 and pA(CO2) is alveolar CO2pressure. Normally, the pa(CO2) is virtually identical to pA(CO2). Thus, VD/VT = (pa(CO2)) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2). By Fowler’s method, VD/VT= 0.25. In the given problem, (pa(CO2) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2) = (40 − pE(CO2)/40 = 0.25. Thus, pE(CO2) = 30 mmHg. If there is a great perfusion/ventilation inequality, pE(CO2) could be significantly lower than 30 mm Hg, and the patient’s physiological dead space would exceed the anatomical dead space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical removal of the gland, which artery is vulnerable to injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a major artery of the head and neck. It arises from the common carotid artery when it splits into the external and internal carotid artery. It supplies blood to the face and neck. The external carotid artery begins opposite the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and, taking a slightly curved course, passes upward and forward and then inclines backward to the space behind the neck of the mandible, where it divides into the superficial temporal and internal maxillary arteries. It rapidly diminishes in size in its course up the neck, owing to the number and large size of the branches given off from it. At its origin, this artery is more superficial and placed nearer the midline than the internal carotid and is contained within the carotid triangle. The external carotid artery is covered by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep fascia and anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid. It is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, by the lingual, ranine, common facial and superior thyroid veins; and by the digastric and stylohyoid; higher up it passes deeply into the substance of the parotid gland, where it lies deep to the facial nerve and the junction of the temporal and internal maxillary veins. It is here that it is in danger during surgery of the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart....

    Incorrect

    • A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin D

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Production of pain is most likely associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • Production of pain is most likely associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Substance P

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator, and is thus, a neuropeptide. It has been linked with pain regulation, mood disorders, stress, reinforcement, neurogenesis, respiratory rhythm, neurotoxicity, nausea and emesis. It is also a potent vasodilator as it brings about release of nitric oxide from the endothelium. Its release can also cause hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following arteries branch from the deep femoral artery and course...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries branch from the deep femoral artery and course between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The proximal tubule is the portion of the ductal system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop...

    Incorrect

    • The proximal tubule is the portion of the ductal system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop of Henle. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a sample of fluid leaving the proximal tubule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It will have no amino acids

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is the portion of the duct system of the nephron leading from Bowman’s capsule to the loop of Henlé. The most distinctive characteristic of the proximal tubule is its brush border (or ‘striated border’). The luminal surface of the epithelial cells of this segment of the nephron is covered with densely packed microvilli forming a border which greatly increases the luminal surface area of the cells, presumably facilitating their reabsorptive function. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are100% reabsorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic

      Explanation:

      The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/4) 25%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Pathology (2/4) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (0/2) 0%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Passmed