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  • Question 1 - The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.

      Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Kupffer cells

      Correct Answer: Centrilobular cells

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases

      Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.

      Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.

      The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:

      Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.

      Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.

      Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.

      Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.

      Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction? ...

    Correct

    • At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?

      Your Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.

      The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
      1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
      2. Thoracic constrictions:
      i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)

      Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?

      Your Answer: Increase in synaptic release of GABA

      Correct Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.

      Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.

      Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.

      Your Answer: 1.25 ml/minute

      Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.

      Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.

      It is represented mathematically as:
      Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
      where,
      U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
      V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
      P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)

      Therefore, in this case:
      CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
      0.1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.

      Your Answer: The posterior superior iliac spines and sacral hiatus form an equilateral triangle pointing downwards

      Correct Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry

      Explanation:

      The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.

      An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.

      Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: E. coli

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.

      Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest pain for two hours. Chest pain was tightness in nature, located in the centre of the chest and radiate into the neck and left arm. The patient otherwise looks fit and well.

      Just after admitting the patient, he suffered VF cardiac arrest and is immediately defibrillated with the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      On clinical examination following was the finding:
      BP: 82/45 mmHg
      Heart rate: 120 beats/min
      Oxygen saturation on air: 25%
      Heart sounds: Normal
      There is no sign of pulmonary oedema. The patient is anxious, cold, and clammy.

      A 12 lead ECG was done which revealed a sinus rhythm of 120 with ST-segment depression and T wave inversion in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is considered best for the initial treatment of the patient?

      Your Answer: Oral aspirin

      Explanation:

      This is a classical case of unstable angina or NSTEMI (Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction). As soon as the diagnosis of unstable angina or NSTEMI is made the initial treatment is Aspirin and antithrombin therapy.

      Betablocker is known to reduce mortality from acute myocardial infarction by reducing oxygen demand. If there is no contraindication (heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, severe left ventricular dysfunction, and asthma), a beta-blocker should be given early. This patient has hypotension and therefore metoprolol is contraindicated.

      If three doses of nitroglycerine tablets or Nitrolingual sprays and intravenous beta-blockers too cannot relieve the symptoms intravenous Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) should be considered provided that there is no hypotension. But in this case, the patient is hypotensive, and therefore, it is contraindicated.

      If the symptoms are not relieved after three serial doses of nitroglycerine or if symptoms recur despite adequate anti-anginal treatment morphine sulphate is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

      ATP
      AMP
      Potassium
      Phosphate, and
      Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

      Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.

      Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
      Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
      Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)

      The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.

      What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?

      Your Answer: FS (fluoride resistant/silent)

      Correct Answer: S (silent)

      Explanation:

      Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.

      Other BChE phenotypes are the following:

      Usual (U)
      Atypical (A)
      Fluoride-resistant (F)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit the 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase

      Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
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