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Question 1
Correct
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A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?
Your Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Correct
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An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure.
Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.
The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
– distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
– descending colonAt approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.
The AMA and PMA do not exist.
The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which nerve does NOT pass through the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located.
What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?Your Answer: Transversalis fascia
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:
Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
CVP 20 mmHg
SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen
What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?Your Answer: Biventricular failure
Explanation:The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).
The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).
The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.
120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).
With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.
By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.
Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 7
Correct
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Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?
Your Answer: Less biodegradation
Explanation:Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.
Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).
Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.
Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?Your Answer: II (CF)
Explanation:Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 9
Correct
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A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed.
Which set of results is most likely her own?
Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2
A - 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
B - 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
C - 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
D - 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)Your Answer: B
Explanation:Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Correct
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The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.
Which pair is correct?Your Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).
Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).
Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Correct
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When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A patient admitted to the hospital is on oxygen via a venturi mask.
The air entrainment ratio is 1:9 i.e. 1 litre of 100% oxygen from the source entrains 9 litres of air from the atmosphere). The flow rate of 100% oxygen is 6L/minute.
Based on the given data which of the following value approximates the oxygen concentration delivered to the patient?Your Answer: 28%
Explanation:The formula for calculating air: oxygen entrainment ratio is given as :
100% − FiO2 = air/oxygen entrainment ratio
Since FiO2 − 21% and the entrainment ratio is already known. Substituting the values in the equation: x = FiO2.100 − x = 9
x − 21
100 − x = 9(x − 21)
100 − x = 9x − 189
10x = 289
x = 289/10
x = 28.9% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 13
Correct
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Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?
Your Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.
In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?Your Answer: Chromium
Explanation:Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.
Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.
Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.
When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.
Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female suffered a TIA 2 weeks ago. She has been admitted to the vascular ward as she will be undergoing carotid endarterectomy tomorrow morning. To explain the procedure and its complications, the surgeon gives her information about the procedure, telling her the artery will be tied during the operation.
She inquires about the areas supplied by the different arteries. You explain that the internal carotid artery supplies the brain while the external carotid artery ascends the neck and bifurcates into two arteries. One of these arteries is the superficial temporal artery. Which of the following is the second branch?Your Answer: Lingual artery
Correct Answer: Maxillary artery
Explanation:Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. This procedure is performed to prevent further episodes, especially in patients who have suffered ischemic strokes or transient ischemic attacks.
The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. The maxillary artery is the larger of the two terminal branches and arises posterior to the neck of the mandible.
The other arteries mentioned in the answer options branch off from the following:
Temporal arteries from the maxillary artery
Middle meningeal artery from the maxillary artery
Lingual artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery
Facial artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver
Explanation:When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).
50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.
The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.
There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following ionic changes is associated with the ventricular myocyte action potential's initial repolarization phase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ceased Na+ and increase K+ conductances
Explanation:The Purkinje system, as well as the action potentials of ventricular and atrial myocytes, have the same ionic changes. It lasts about 200 milliseconds and has a resting membrane potential, as well as fast depolarisation and plateau phases.
There are five stages to the process:
Increased Na+ and decreased K+ conductance in Phase 0 (rapid depolarisation).
1st phase (initial repolarisation) : Na+ conductance decreased, while K+ conductance increased.
Phase two (plateau phase) : Ca2+ conductance increased
Phase three (repolarisation phase) : Lower Ca2+ conductance and higher K+ conductance
4th Phase (resting membrane potential) : K+ conductance increased, Na+ conductance decreased, and Ca2+ conductance decreased. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.
Which of the following term can be used to describe this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.
Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.
When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.
The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.
Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple
Explanation:Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).
All of the other connections are non-linear.
For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.
A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.
A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.
The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 82-year old male has shortness of breath which is made worse when he lies down but investigations have revealed a normal ejection fraction. Why might this be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction
Explanation:Decreased stroke volume causes decreased ejection fraction which results in diastolic dysfunction.
Ejection fraction is not a useful measure in someone with diastolic dysfunction because stroke volume may be reduced whilst end-diastolic volume may be reduced.
Diastolic dysfunction may arise with reduced heart compliance.Ejection fraction measures of the proportion of blood leaving the ventricles with each beat and is calculated as follows:
Stroke volume / end-diastolic volume.A healthy ejection fraction is usually taken as 60% (based on a stroke volume of 70ml and end-diastolic volume of 120ml).
Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.
Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
Hypotension also decreases venous return.
A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output.
Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes tetany
Explanation:The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:
Prolonged PR interval
Prolonged QT interval
Flattening of T waves
ST segment depression
Prominent U wavesThese changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.
There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.
There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.
The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.
A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury.
The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following:
Airway-patent
Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds.
Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg.
Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established.
The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg
Explanation:These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Patients do not normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma, this needs to be correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines).
There are minimal systolic pressure changes.
There may be associated anxiety, fright or hostilityClass III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state – crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
There are classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure.
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale.
Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.
This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.
This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.
There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.
Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.
Explanation:Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:
Cardiac measurements:
Heart rate
Systolic pressure
Diastolic pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Pulse pressure
Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosisFrom the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:
Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
Bisferiens wave in HOCM
Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficientFor this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:
dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.
Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.
Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor
Explanation:Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.
Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.
Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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