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  • Question 1 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer: A thermistor is located at the tip of the pulmonary artery catheter

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Irreversible brain damage

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?

      Your Answer: T10-T11 vertebrae have no facets on the transverse processes

      Correct Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root

      Explanation:

      The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.

      Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.

      The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.

      The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.

      The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.

      Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin.

      Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of carotid sinus baroreceptors

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion

      Explanation:

      The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:

      Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
      Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
      The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
      Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.

      Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.

      The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.

      The following are some basic assumptions:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
      One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
      The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
      The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
      The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
      The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
      The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily? ...

    Correct

    • Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Secreted T4 and T3 circulate in the bloodstream almost entirely bound to proteins. Normally only about 0.03% of total plasma T4 and 0.3% of total plasma T3 exist in the free state. Free T3 is biologically active and mediates the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues in addition to exerting negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus. The major binding protein is thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which is synthesized in the liver and binds one molecule of T4 or T3. About 70% of circulating T4 and T3 is bound to TBGl 10% to 15% is bound to another specific thyroid-binding protein called transthyretin (TTR). Albumin binds 15% to 20%, and 3% to lipoproteins. Ordinarily only alterations in TBG concentration significantly affect total plasma T4 and T3 levels.

      Two important biological functions have been ascribed to TBG. First, it maintains a large circulating reservoir of T4 that buffers any acute changes in thyroid gland function. Second, binding of plasma T4 and T3 to proteins prevents loss of these relatively small hormone molecules in urine and thereby helps conserve iodide. TTR transports T4 in CSF and provides thyroid hormones to the CNS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?

      Your Answer: Internal diameter (mm)

      Correct Answer: External circumference (mm)

      Explanation:

      Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

      A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

      A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

      When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and cause membrane hyperpolarization.

      Lorazepam has emerged as the preferred benzodiazepine for acute management of status epilepticus. Lorazepam differs from diazepam in two important respects. It is less lipid-soluble than diazepam, with a distribution half-life of two to three hours versus 15 minutes for diazepam. Therefore, it should have a longer duration of clinical effect. Lorazepam also binds the GABAergic receptor more tightly than diazepam, resulting in a longer duration of action. The anticonvulsant effects of lorazepam last six to 12 hours, and the typical dose ranges from 4 to 8 mg. This agent also has a broad spectrum of efficacy, terminating seizures in 75-80% of cases. Its adverse effects are identical to those of diazepam. Thus, lorazepam also is an effective choice for acute seizure management, with the added possibility of a longer duration of action than diazepam.

      Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that binds to GABA-A receptor site and increase the duration of chloride channel opening. It also blocks glutamic acid neurotransmission, and, at high doses, can block sodium channels. It is considered as the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is an anti-seizure drug that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. It is preferred in prolonged therapy of status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      In cases wherein airway protection is required, thiopentone and propofol are the preferred drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured...

    Incorrect

    • The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured by a health care professional. This is what he found:


      Year People with Diabetes New Cases
      2017 150,000 2000
      2018 150,000 4000


      What can be stated regarding the incidence and prevalence of the disease in that area?

      Your Answer: Incidence equal, prevalence equal

      Correct Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      Incidence tells us about the number of new cases that have been reported while prevalence gives us the idea of existing cases.

      In this particular instance, the parameter of the study i.e. the total number of cases has not changed thus the prevalence of the disease remains same. Although, more cases have been reported in the second instance as a result of which incidence has increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which? ...

    Incorrect

    • The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?

      Your Answer: Most of the right ventricle

      Correct Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.

      The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Pathophysiology (0/3) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
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