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  • Question 1 - After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly...

    Incorrect

    • After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly hypoxic state. In which of the following organs are the arterial beds most likely to be vasoconstricted due to the hypoxia?

      Your Answer: Gut

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is a local response to hypoxia resulting primarily from constriction of small muscular pulmonary arteries in response to reduced alveolar oxygen tension. This unique response of pulmonary arterioles results in a local adjustment of perfusion to ventilation. This means that if a bronchiole is obstructed, the lack of oxygen causes contraction of the pulmonary vascular smooth muscle in the corresponding area, shunting blood away from the hypoxic region to better-ventilated regions. The purpose of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is to distribute blood flow regionally to increase the overall efficiency of gas exchange between air and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      843.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of...

    Incorrect

    • In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Great saphenous vein

      Correct Answer: Nerve to vastus medialis

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal (sub sartorial canal) is situated in the middle third of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint:...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Arytenoid

      Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of...

    Correct

    • When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.

      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:

      The motor and pre-motor areas

      The somato-sensory

      Auditory areas

      Motor speech

      Sensory speech

      Pre-frontal area

      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:

      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face

      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in her right breast which is fixed to the chest wall. Another 2cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axilla. Chest x ray reveals multiple nodules ranging from 0.5 - 0.2 cm in both the lungs. What is the stage of her disease?

      Your Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Correct Answer: T4 N1 M1

      Explanation:

      This woman has an invasive primary tumour mass with axillary node and lung metastases, making this stage T4 N1 M1. Looking at the other stems, T1 N1 M0 signifies a small primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; T1 N0 M1 signifies a small primary cancer with no lymph node metastases but with distant metastases; T2 N1 M0 signifies a larger primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; and T3 N0 M0 indicates a larger primary cancer with no metastases to either lymph nodes or to distant sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Female Health
      • Pathology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Where do the seminal vesicles lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the seminal vesicles lie?

      Your Answer: Prostate and rectum

      Correct Answer: Base of the bladder and rectum

      Explanation:

      The seminal vesicles are two lobulated membranous pouches situated between the fundus of the bladder and rectum and act as a reservoir for the semen and secrete a fluid that is added to the seminal fluid. Each sac is pyramidal in shape but they all vary in size not only in different individuals but also in the same individuals. The anterior surface is in contact with the fundus of the bladder, extending from near the termination of the ureter to the base of the prostate. Each vesicle consist of single tube, which gives off several irregular caecal diverticula. These separate coils and the diverticula are connected by fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      2144.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the arterial sequence for an analgesic to reach the latissimus dorsi...

    Correct

    • What is the arterial sequence for an analgesic to reach the latissimus dorsi muscle assuming that your starting point is at the subclavian vein?

      Your Answer: Subclavian – axillary – subscapular – thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Assuming our starting point is the subclavian artery, the analgesic continues in the same vessel into the axillary artery, as it passes into the axilla. The axillary artery at the lower border of the subscapularis gives rise to the subcapsular artery which is considered the largest branch of the axillary artery. This circumflex scapular branch distributes a serratus branch before entering the substance of the muscle as the thoracodorsal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from...

    Correct

    • Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:

      Your Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.

      External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Colorectal
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      112.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration?

      Your Answer: Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals

      Correct Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostals

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm and external intercostals are muscles of inspiration as they increase the volume of thoracic cavity and reduce the intrathoracic pressure. Muscles of expiration include abdominal muscles and internal intercostals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Correct Answer: Left gastric

      Explanation:

      The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.

      Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      93.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median...

    Correct

    • Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Anterior aspect of the elbow

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to insert it into the anterior aspect of the elbow. If you look at the venous drainage of the upper limb, you will find that there are two main veins, the basilic and the cephalic vein; the connecting branch between these two veins is the median cubital vein. and this vein passes via the cubital fossa which is on the anterior aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A cancer patient was found to have a radio resistant tumour. Which tumour...

    Correct

    • A cancer patient was found to have a radio resistant tumour. Which tumour does the patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Liposarcoma

      Explanation:

      Liposarcoma is a cancer that arises in fat cells in deep soft tissue. Commonly it occurs inside the thigh or retroperitoneum. It usually affects middle-aged and older adults, over 40 years. Liposarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma. It is very radio resistant. Five-year survival rates vary from 100% to 56% based on histological subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      368.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform...

    Correct

    • An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform bone. Which bone was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Triquetral

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone has an oval facet for articulation with the triquetral bone. The pisiform bone is a sesamoid bone, and is anterior to the other carpal bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patients sciatic nerve has been severed following a stab injury. What would...

    Incorrect

    • A patients sciatic nerve has been severed following a stab injury. What would be affected?

      Your Answer: The sartorius and gracilis muscles would not be able to contract

      Correct Answer: There would still be cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies nearly all of the sensation of the skin of the leg and the muscles of the back of the thigh, leg and foot. A transection of the sciatic nerve at its exit from the pelvis will affect all the above-mentioned functions except cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh, which comes from the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Incorrect

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: S2

      Correct Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      167.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the following movements will be affected?

      Your Answer: Extension of the leg

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle is a great extensor of the thigh. Therefore, following nerve injury or cutting nerve supply to the quadriceps will affect extension of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed numerous bacilli under the microscope. The organism was non-pathogenic. What is the most likely organism:

      Your Answer: Lactobacillus species

      Explanation:

      Lactobacillus is a Gram-positive facultative bacteria. It is commonly present in the vagina and the gastrointestinal tract. Colonization of Lactobacillus is usually benign and it makes up a small portion of the gastrointestinal flora.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?

      Your Answer: Vastus intermedius

      Explanation:

      The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      242
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial...

    Correct

    • A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial vein was injured which terminates in the femoral vein. This superficial vein is?

      Your Answer: Great saphenous

      Explanation:

      The great saphenous vein is considered the longest vein in the body. It terminates in the femoral vein nearly 3cm below the inguinal ligament. It begins at the dorsum of the foot in the medial marginal vein and ascends at the medial side of the leg in relation with the saphenous nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal was brought in to the oncology ward for chemotherapy. In which of the following lymph nodes of this patient would you likely find metastases?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac

      Explanation:

      The efferent lymphatics from the anal canal proceed to the internal iliac lymph nodes. This would most likely form the site of enlargement in the lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Calculate the stroke volume in an adult male with the following parameters:

    Heart...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the stroke volume in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 80 ml

      Correct Answer: 90 ml

      Explanation:

      Fick’s principle states that, VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. Cardiac output is also given by product of stroke volume and heart rate. Thus, stroke volume = cardiac output / heart rate = 6.25/70 × 1000 stroke volume = 90 ml approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      196.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 80 year-old lady presents to the out patient clinic complaining of chest...

    Correct

    • An 80 year-old lady presents to the out patient clinic complaining of chest pain of 2 months' duration with a normal electrocardiogram and cardiac enzymes. A computed tomographic scan is done which reveals a mass lesion involving a structure in the middle mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle mediastinum is the broadest part of the mediastinal cavity containing the heart enclosed in the pericardium, ascending aorta, lower half of the superior vena cava with the azygos vein opening into it, the bifurcation of the trachea and the two bronchi, the pulmonary artery with its branches, pulmonary veins, phrenic nerves and bronchial lymph nodes. The most likely structure involved is the ascending aorta, perhaps with an aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      1017.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted...

    Incorrect

    • Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted or absorbed by the kidney. In these cases, their clearance rate is equal to:

      Your Answer: Renal plasma flow

      Correct Answer: Glomerular filtration rate

      Explanation:

      If a substance passes through the glomerular membrane with perfect ease, the glomerular filtrate contains virtually the same concentration of the substance as does the plasma and if the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules, all of the filtered substance continues on into the urine. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) describes the flow rate of filtered fluid through the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:...

    Incorrect

    • The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      In the body, nitric oxide is synthesised from arginine and oxygen by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and by sequential reduction of inorganic nitrate. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, so dilating the artery and increasing blood flow. Nitric oxide/oxygen blends are used in critical care to promote capillary and pulmonary dilation to treat primary pulmonary hypertension in neonatal patients post-meconium aspiration and related to birth defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum is prescribed metoclopramide. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum is prescribed metoclopramide. What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine antagonist

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine-receptor antagonist with anti-emetic and prokinetic properties. It is therefore commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting, and to facilitate gastric emptying in patients with gastric stasis. The anti-emetic action of metoclopramide is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the central nervous system. Common adverse drug reactions associated with metoclopramide include restlessness (akathisia), and focal dystonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are part of the immune system and they function mainly as antigen presenting cells. They are present in small quantities in tissues which are in contact in the external environment. Mainly in the skin and to a lesser extent in the lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. In the skin they are known as Langerhans cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for 10 days. When she presented to the doctor she had haemorrhagic bullae and necrotic lesions in her lower limbs and buttocks. Deficiency of which of the following proteins may have caused the necrotic skin lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein C

      Explanation:

      Warfarin-induced skin necrosis is a rare complication of anticoagulant therapy that requires immediate drug cessation. The most common cutaneous findings include petechiae that progress to ecchymoses and haemorrhagic bullae. Warfarin inactivates vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and vitamin K-dependent proteins C and S. The concentration of protein C falls more rapidly than other vitamin K-dependent factors because they have a shorter half-lives. Skin necrosis is seen mainly in patients with prior protein C deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and developed subsequent anaemia. Which of the following is a consequence of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A high reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Anaemia refers to a decrease in the circulating levels of haemoglobin in the blood resulting in a reduced ability of the body to transport oxygen effectively. Anaemia from blood loss results in the body further compensating by releasing stored RBCs and immature RBCs from the bone marrow. Thus resulting in a high reticulocyte count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 66 year old male, was involved in a MVA. He sustained third...

    Incorrect

    • A 66 year old male, was involved in a MVA. He sustained third degree burns to his abdomen and open bleeding wound to his left leg. The patient complains of dizziness. He is a known hypertensive but during examination was found to be hypotensive. His heart rate is 120/min, with regular rhythm. What is the possible cause of his hypotension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypovolemia can be recognized by tachycardia, diminished blood pressure, and the absence of perfusion as assessed by skin signs (skin turning pale) and/or capillary refill time. The patient may feel dizzy, faint, nauseated, or very thirsty. Common causes of hypovolemia are loss of blood, loss of plasma which occurs in severe burns and lesions discharging fluid, loss of body sodium and consequent intravascular water which may occur in cases of diarrhoea and vomiting. In this case the cause of patients hypotension is due to hypovolemia from both loss of plasma and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Incorrect

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted when mixed with Type A antibodies. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      There are two stages to determine the blood group, known as ABO typing. The first stage is called forward typing. In this method, RBCs are mixed with two separate solutions of type A or type B antibodies to see if they agglutinate. If this blood clumps, this indicates the presence of antigens within the blood sample. For example, a sample of type B blood will clump when tested with type A antibodies as it contains type B antigens. Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
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  • Question 39 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 40 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Incorrect

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 41 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 42 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 43 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.

      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.

      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.

      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 44 - The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of...

    Incorrect

    • The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visceral space

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is situated at the front and sides of the neck in the visceral space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 45 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Incorrect

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges.

      The middle meningeal artery is a large arterial branch of the maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery. Upon originating, the middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum. In the skull, it courses in the middle cranial fossa where it provides several branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 46 - A patient is diagnosed with lung cancer. His physician told him that his...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with lung cancer. His physician told him that his lung cancer type is aggressive. It can grow rapidly and may undergo early metastasis, however it is very sensitive to chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Which lung cancer type is most likely present

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Small-cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) is a type of highly malignant cancer that most commonly arises within the lung. SCLC usually metastasizes widely very early on in the natural history of the tumour, and in nearly all cases responds dramatically to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. Surgery has no role in the treatment of this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
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  • Question 47 - A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with pain in his left flank. The pain began suddenly and presented in waves throughout the night. Urine examination was normal except for presence of blood and few white blood cells. The pH and specific gravity of the urine were also found to be within normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ureteric calculus

      Explanation:

      A calculus in the ureter, if less than 5mm in diameter is likely to pass spontaneously. However, a larger calculus irritates the ureter and may become lodged, leading to hydroureter and/or hydronephrosis. Likely sites where the calculus might get lodged, include pelviureteric junction, distal ureter at the level of iliac vessels and the vesicoureteric junction. An obstruction can result in reduced glomerular filtration. There can be deterioration in renal function due to hydronephrosis and a raised glomerular pressure, leading to poor renal blood flow. Permanent renal dysfunction usually takes about 4 weeks to occur. Secondary infection can also occur in chronic obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
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  • Question 48 - The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related...

    Incorrect

    • The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related to :

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxin and enzyme production

      Explanation:

      The pathogenicity of an organism or its ability to cause disease is determined by its virulence factors. Many bacteria produce virulence factors that inhibit the host’s immune system. The virulence factors of bacteria are typically proteins or other molecules that are synthesized by enzymes. These proteins are coded for by genes in chromosomal DNA, bacteriophage DNA or plasmids. The proteins made by the bacteria can poison the host cells and cause tissue damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 49 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Incorrect

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory depression

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a high level of magnesium in the blood. It is defined as a level greater than 1.1 mmol/L. Symptoms include weakness, confusion, decreased breathing rate, and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (0/4) 0%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (12/18) 67%
Lower Limb (3/6) 50%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Upper Limb (4/4) 100%
Neoplasia; Female Health (0/1) 0%
Pelvis (2/3) 67%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Passmed