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Question 1
Incorrect
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Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group?
Your Answer: Parasites
Correct Answer: Eukaryotes
Explanation:Protozoa are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms. Historically, protozoa were defined as single-celled organisms with animal-like behaviours, such as motility and predation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule, and is treated with a combination of low sodium diet and potassium-sparing diuretic drugs (e.g., amiloride).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which substance is produced by anterograde neurons?
Your Answer: Substance P
Correct Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Classically in the peripheral nervous system, it diffuses from a presynaptic nerve ending to the post synaptic effecter cell which is mainly smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?
Your Answer: Topical metronidazole
Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids
Explanation:Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?
Your Answer: CN 6 – 12
Correct Answer: CN 3 - 12
Explanation:The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?
Your Answer: Purkinje, stellate, basket
Correct Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which one of the following is necessary to activate plasminogen to plasmin?
Your Answer: tPA
Explanation:In circulation, plasminogen adopts a closed, activation resistant conformation. Upon binding to clots, or to the cell surface, plasminogen adopts an open form that can be converted into active plasmin by a variety of enzymes, including tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), kallikrein, and factor XII (Hageman factor).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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Myocyte action potentials – Choose the false statement:
Your Answer: Repolarisation is due to net k+ influx
Explanation:Final repolarization (phase 3) to the resting membrane potential (phase 4) is due to closure of the Ca2+ channels and a slow, delayed increase of K+ efflux through various types of K+ channels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?
Your Answer: 60 min
Correct Answer: 90 min
Explanation:A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:
Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis
Explanation:Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not expect to find?
Your Answer: Macroglossia
Correct Answer: Hypohidrosis
Explanation:Features of acromegaly may include:
- Soft tissue swelling visibly resulting in enlargement of the hands, feet, nose, lips and ears, and a general thickening of the skin
- Soft tissue swelling of internal organs, notably the heart with associated weakening of its muscularity, and the kidneys, vocal cords (resulting in a characteristic thick, deep voice and slowing of speech)
- Generalized expansion of the skull at the fontanelle, frontal bossing, prognathism with associated macroglossia (enlargement of the tongue) and teeth spacing.
- Hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation and hyperhidrosis (not hypohidrosis) may occur in these patients as well as carpal tunnel syndrome and impotence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Digoxin causes:
Your Answer: Na/k ATPase stimulation
Correct Answer: Increase in cytosolic calcium concentration
Explanation:Digoxin is a positive inotrope which inhibits NA/K ATPase, increases cardiac contractility and can cause hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:
Your Answer: The cell divides
Explanation:Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:
Your Answer: At the base of the crypts
Explanation:Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes:
Your Answer: Restricted, limiting blood blow
Explanation:Angina pectoris develops when stenosis ( >70%) of the artery occurs as a result of formation of an atherosclerotic plaque. This leads to a decrease in the O2 carried to the thickened heart muscle by the blood, leading to the characteristic chest pain associated with angina pectoris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:
Your Answer: Factor VIa & VIIa
Correct Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa
Explanation:Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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Select the correct statement regarding the macro anatomy of the thyroid gland.
Your Answer: It surrounds the trachea at the front of the neck.
Explanation:The thyroid is located around the trachea, in the anterior portion of the neck. It is formed by two lobes which are connected by an isthmus. The presence of a pyramidal lobe, or third lobe, is considered to be a normal anatomical variant. It originates from the primitive pharynx and the neural crest and has a rich vascular supply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium that helps to initiate contraction?
Your Answer: Troponin t
Correct Answer: Troponin c
Explanation:Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?
Your Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally may be affected by co-administration of other drugs
Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination
Explanation:Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation. Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose. Other options are true:By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine. Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:
Your Answer: Northern blotting
Correct Answer: Southern blotting
Explanation:A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?
Your Answer: Gram positive cocci
Correct Answer: Gram negative cocci
Explanation:Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:The energy required for sustained exercise is provided by the oxidation of two fuels, glucose stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and long-chain fatty acids, stored as adipose tissue triglycerides. The latter provides the largest energy reserve in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Release of serotonin from platelet granules
Correct Answer: Collagen fibers underlying the endothelium
Explanation:The contact activation (intrinsic) pathway begins with formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and FXII (Hageman factor).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the most abundant cell type in the central nervous system called?
Your Answer: Oligodendrocyte
Correct Answer: Astrocyte
Explanation:Astrocytes are the supporting cells of the central nervous system. There are two types; the fibrous type is found in the white matter and the protoplasmic type in the grey matter. They are the most abundant cell type in the CNS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms one of the characteristic and functional cells making up the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Rathke cell
Correct Answer: Corticotrope
Explanation:The anterior pituitary, also known as adenohypophysis or pars anterior contains the following types of cells: – acidophil cells: somatotroph cells, which produce growth hormone; and lactotrophs, which produce prolactin- basophil cells: corticotropes, which produce adrenocorticotropic hormone; thyrotropes, which produce thyroid stimulating hormone; and – gonadotrophs, which produce luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:
Your Answer: All of the options are true
Explanation:All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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Neurons that are inactive during quiet breathing, become active when the respiratory drive for increased ventilation becomes greater than normal. These are located in the:
Your Answer: Ventral respiratory group
Explanation:The mechanism of control of ventilation is an interplay of multiple regions in the brain. Medullary respiratory centre sets the basic rhythm of breathing. The dorsal respiratory group integrates input from the stretch receptors and the chemoreceptors in the periphery and is composed mainly of inspiratory neurons which controls the basic rhythm of breathing. The ventral respiratory group generates breathing rhythm and integrates data coming in to the medulla. It contains both inspiratory and expiratory neurons. They are primarily active in exercise and stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Telomerase
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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