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  • Question 1 - The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's...

    Incorrect

    • The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's effects.

      When these muscle relaxants are used, which of the following peripheral nerve stimulator twitch patterns is best for monitoring the return of diaphragmatic function?

      Your Answer: Double burst stimulation

      Correct Answer: Post-tetanic count stimulation

      Explanation:

      Certain skeletal muscles are more resistant to the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents, both non-depolarizing and depolarizing. The diaphragm is the most resistant. The muscles of the larynx and the corrugator supercilii are less resistant. The abdominal, orbicularis oris, and limb peripheral muscles are the most sensitive muscles.

      Twitch stimulation patterns:

      Supramaximal single stimulus:

      The frequency ranges from 1 Hz to 0.1 Hz (one every second to one every 10 seconds)
      The response is proportional to the frequency of the event.
      It has limited clinical utility because it only tells you whether or not a patient is paralysed (no information on degree of paralysis).

      Over the course of 0.5 seconds (2 Hz), four supramaximal stimulate were applied:

      It is possible to see ‘fade’ and use it as a basis for evaluation.
      This stimulation pattern is used to determine the degree of blockade (1-2 twitches is appropriate for abdominal surgery)
      If the train of four (TOF) count is 1-2, reversal agents can be used in conjunction with medium-acting neuromuscular blocking agents.

      Ratio of TOF:

      This is the ratio of the 4th twitch amplitude to the 1st twitch amplitude.
      The ratio decreases with non-depolarising block and is inversely proportional to the degree of block, allowing objective measurement of residual neuromuscular blockade.
      To achieve adequate reversal, the ratio (as measured by accelerography) must be between 0.7 and 0.9.

      Count of twitches after a tetanic experience(PTC):

      50 Hz for 5 seconds, then a 3 second pause, followed by a single 1 Hz twitch stimulus.
      When the TOF count is zero, this stimulation pattern is used to assess deep blockade (that is, in neurosurgery, microsurgery or ophthalmic surgery when even small movements of a patient will disturb the surgical field)
      It gives an estimate of how long it will take for the response to return to single twitches, allowing assessment of blocks that are too deep for any other technique.
      A palpable post-tetanic count (PTC) of 2 indicates no twitch response for about 20-30 minutes, and a PTC of 5 indicates no twitch response for about 10-15 minutes.

      This is without a doubt the best way to keep track of paralysis in patients who need to avoid diaphragmatic movement. It’s best to use drug infusions and aim for a PTC of 2. After a tetanic stimulus, acetylcholine is mobilised, causing post-tetanic potentiation.

      Stimulation in Two Bursts:

      750 milliseconds between two short bursts of 50 Hz
      This stimulation pattern is used to assess small amounts of residual blockade manually (tactile).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The statement that best describes temperature management is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes temperature management is:

      Your Answer: An essential component of tympanic thermometers is a small bead of semiconductor material

      Correct Answer: Gauge thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      810.8
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  • Question 3 - A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.

      On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:

      Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
      Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
      Pulse: 120 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
      SPO2: 95% on air
      Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases

      What is the next most important step of investigation?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

      Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

      PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

      Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

      Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
      Heart rate: >110 beats/min
      PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
      Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

      A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

      If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
      Possible life threatening asthma
      Possible consolidation
      Unresponsive asthma
      If ventilation is required.

      An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

      Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.

      An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.

      What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis

      Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.

      It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.

      The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.

      Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.

      In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Correct

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter.

      His vital readings are:

      Temperature: 38.1°C
      Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg)
      Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg)
      Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg
      Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg
      Cardiac output: 5 L/min
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%

      Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance.

      Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is less than the functional residual capacity in a 30-year-old

      Explanation:

      Closing capacity refers to volume of gas within the lungs at which the conducting small airways begin to close, that is, the point during expiration when small airways close.

      It is calculated mathematically as:

      Closing capacity = Closing volume (CV) + Residual volume (RV)

      Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas still present within the lungs post expiration.

      Closing capacity is lower than the functional residual capacity in younger adults, but begins to rise to eventually equal, and then exceed it with increasing age (at about middle age), increasing intrabdominal pressure, decreasing blood flow in the pulmonary system and parenchymal disease within the pulmonary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support.

      What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.

      It is a combination of:

      Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
      Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2O

      It is represented mathematically as:

      1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw

      Where,

      Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
      Cl = compliance of the lung
      Ccw = compliance of the chest wall

      Therefore in this case:

      1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200

      1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01

      1/Ct = 0.01

      Rearranging equation gives:

      Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 10 - Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 11 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 12 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 13 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.

      Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
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  • Question 14 - A pulmonary function tests results are:

    Measurement Predicted result Test result
    Forced vital capacity (FVC)...

    Incorrect

    • A pulmonary function tests results are:

      Measurement Predicted result Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4

      What does this indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 15 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 16 - The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter...

    Incorrect

    • The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter inserted:

      Pulse rate - 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure - 120/70mmHg
      Mean central venous pressure (MCVP) - 10mmHg
      Right ventricular pressure (RVP) - 30/4 mmHg
      Mean pulmonary artery wedge pressure (MPAWP) - 12mmHg

      Which value best approximates the patient's coronary perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 58mmHg

      Explanation:

      Coronary perfusion pressure(CPP), the difference between aortic diastolic pressure (Pdiastolic) and the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), is mainly determined by the formula:

      CPP = Pdiastolic -LVEDP
      where
      Pdiastolic is the lowest pressure in the aorta before left ventricular ejection and
      LVEDP is measured directly during a cardiac catheterisation or indirectly using a pulmonary artery catheter. The pulmonary artery occlusion or wedge pressure approximates best with LVEDP.

      Using this patient’s haemodynamic data:

      CPP = Pdiastolic – MPAWP
      COO = 70 – 12 = 58mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 17 - A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair.

      What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaerobic threshold

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.

      The parameters measured include:

      ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
      Oxygen consumption (VO2)
      Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
      Gas flows and volumes
      Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
      Respiratory rate
      Anaerobic threshold (AT)

      The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.

      Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities. The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship. During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.

      Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.

      Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.

      It is represented mathematically as:
      Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
      where,
      U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
      V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
      P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)

      Therefore, in this case:
      CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
      0.1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.

      ASA I A normal healthy patient
      ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
      ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
      ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
      ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

      A 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II

      A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II

      A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III

      A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II

      A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 20 - A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.

      Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.

      Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 22 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

    Measurement - Predicted result -...

    Incorrect

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

      Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1

      Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased resonance elevates the systolic and lower the diastolic pressures

      Explanation:

      The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.

      It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.

      The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.

      The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.

      A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 24 - A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan...

    Incorrect

    • A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.

      In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromium

      Explanation:

      Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.

      Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.

      Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.

      When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.

      Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 25 - A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia....

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia. She has no cardiac or respiratory problems. Lisinopril is being used to treat her hypertension, which is under control.

      Which of the following preoperative investigations are the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No investigations

      Explanation:

      Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.

      The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:

      Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
      Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.

      No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 26 - Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change in stroke volume following passive straight leg raise

      Explanation:

      The passive leg raising (PLR) manoeuvre is a method of altering left and right ventricular preload and it is done with real-time measurement of stroke volume. It is a simple, quick, relatively unbiased, and accurate bedside test to guide fluid management and avoid fluid overload.

      Pulse pressure variation (PPV), Stroke volume variation (SVV), superior vena cava diameter variation (threshold 36%) and end-expiratory occlusion test are used for dynamic tests of fluid responsiveness.

      PPV is derived peripherally from the arterial pressure waveform.

      Stroke volume variation (SVV) can be derived peripherally through pulse contour analysis of the arterial waveform. PPV and SVV have a threshold of 12% but since they are not used in patients who have cardiac arrhythmias, are spontaneous breathing, and in ventilated patients with low lung compliance and tidal volumes, they are of limited value.

      The tests of fluid responsiveness’ accuracy is determined by calculating the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (UROC) obtained by plotting the sensitivity of the parameter in predicting fluid responsiveness vs. 1-specificity.

      Under optimal conditions, the ability to determine the need for fluid is best with PPV>SVV>LVEDA>CVP.

      Central venous pressure (CVP) is a static test of preload (not preload responsiveness) and a key determinant of cardiac function. The left ventricular end-diastolic area (LVEDA) a static test of fluid responsiveness, is derived using echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 27 - Which of these statements is true about spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is true about spirometry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes

      Explanation:

      Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg

      A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:

      Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)

      The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.

      Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
      In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 28 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 29 - The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules

      Explanation:

      Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.

      It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.

      It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.

      The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6?m (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 ?m is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 ?m. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 ?m and throughout the ranges 8-12 ?m.

      IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.

      IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.

      The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.

      Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.

      The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 30 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 31 - Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A metre is the unit of length

      Explanation:

      The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.

      There are seven base units, which are:

      Metre (m): a unit of length
      Second (s): a unit of time
      Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
      Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
      Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
      Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
      Mole (mol): a unit of substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 32 - A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:

      Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
      Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
      CVP 20 mmHg
      SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen

      What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biventricular failure

      Explanation:

      The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).

      The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).

      The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.

      120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).

      With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.

      By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.

      Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 33 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.

      As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).

      Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute

      where,

      1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 34 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 35 - All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 36 - An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery.

      On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled.

      Her measurements are:
      End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240)
      End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140)

      Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.

      The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:

      SV = EDV – ESV, and

      EF = SV/EDV x 100

      The normal range for EF is >55-70%.

      For this patient,

      SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore

      EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 37 - Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is...

    Incorrect

    • Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:

      SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80

      = (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5

      A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
      Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5

      Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80

      = (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5

      To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
      N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 38 - Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

      Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 39 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 40 - A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.

      Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
      Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
      Heart rate: ≥110/min
      Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.

      Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.

      A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
      Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
      Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
      Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
      Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
      If mechanical ventilation is indicated

      A peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.

      An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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Clinical Measurement (1/5) 20%
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