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  • Question 1 - What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ? ...

    Correct

    • What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?

      Your Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters

      Explanation:

      Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.

      Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.

      Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.

      Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?

      Your Answer: The bimetallic strip has a coefficient of expansion that is proportional to temperature

      Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature

      Explanation:

      A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.

      Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.

      Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

    1 mg midazolam...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

      1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.

      Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?

      Your Answer: Synergism

      Explanation:

      Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:

      Additive interaction (summation).

      Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.

      Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.

      Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.

      Potentiation

      In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).

      Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).

      This can be subdivided into the following categories:

      -Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
      -Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
      -Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of...

    Correct

    • Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.

      Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?

      Your Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths

      Explanation:

      This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:

      Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
      Increased closing capacity (CC)
      Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
      Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.

      Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.

      Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.

      Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Correct

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular...

    Correct

    • Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.

      It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

      The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.

      The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.

      The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.

      The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure? ...

    Correct

    • What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz

      Explanation:

      The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.

      The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.

      Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Incorrect

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer: 8 hours

      Correct Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus

      Explanation:

      Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.

      The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company behind this, is planning to conduct a trial and is looking for hiring around 200 individuals that are suffering from Crohn's disease. The aim would be to determine if there is any decline in the disease activity in response to the drug and compare it with a placebo.

      What phase is the trial in?

      Your Answer: Phase 0

      Correct Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The study is being conducted on a smaller level with only 200 participants and is determining the effectiveness of the drug in comparison to a placebo. These characteristics are in accordance with the second phase of trial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have...

    Incorrect

    • The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
      Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?

      Your Answer: I (BF)

      Correct Answer: II (CF)

      Explanation:

      Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
      The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
      II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
      III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
      Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
      B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
      BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
      CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer: Carbon dioxide cylinders are brown

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Concerning platelets one of the following is true ...

    Correct

    • Concerning platelets one of the following is true

      Your Answer: Are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.

      They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.

      Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

      Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic.

      During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups.

      Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs.

      What is the most important first step?

      Your Answer: Arrange an MRI scan

      Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.

      The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.

      The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.

      Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.

      A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:

      Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
      Cauda equina syndrome
      Paralysis of the lower extremities.
      If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
      Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
      Meningism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory...

    Correct

    • One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory acidosis?

      Your Answer: pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L

      Explanation:

      pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L is the correct answer.

      Since the pH is the lower limit of normal, it is compensated despite a raised PaCO2. Retention of bicarbonate ions by the renal system suggests this process is chronic.

      pH=7.24, PaCO2=3.5kPa, PaO2=8.5kPa, HCO3- =18mmol/L represents an acute uncompensated metabolic acidosis

      The remaining stems are degrees of uncompensated respiratory acidosis and therefore incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone may be administered following a third DC shock

      Explanation:

      Ventricular fibrillation (VT) is an arrhythmia caused by a distortion in the organized contraction of the ventricles leading to an inability to pump blood out into the body.

      Amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug used for the treatment of ventricular and atrial fibrillations. It is the gold standard of treatment for refractory pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF).

      Guidelines for emergency treatment state that only the rescuer carrying out chest compressions on the patient may stand near the defibrillator as it charges.

      Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) during cardiac arrest is required for 2 minute cycles.

      Hypovolaemia is as a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) can be reversed using fluid resuscitation, whereas hypotension during cardiac arrest is either persistent or undetectable and is therefore irreversible.

      Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia are treated using calcium salts, but calcium chloride is often preferred over calcium gluconate.

      During a pulseless VT or VF, a single precordial thump will be effective if administered within the first seconds of the occurrence of a shockable rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is?

      Your Answer: C7

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A pre-operative evaluation for a trans-sphenoidal pituitary adenectomy is being performed on a...

    Correct

    • A pre-operative evaluation for a trans-sphenoidal pituitary adenectomy is being performed on a 57-year-old woman. Her vision is causing her problems.

      A macroadenoma compressing the optic chiasm is visible on MRI.

      What is the most likely visual field defect to be discovered during an examination?

      Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia

      Explanation:

      The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in the neuro-endocrine axis. It is located at the base of the skull in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. It is connected superiorly to the hypothalamus, third ventricle, and visual pathways, and laterally to the cavernous sinuses, internal carotid arteries, and cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI.

      Pituitary tumours make up about 10-15% of all intracranial tumours. The majority of adenomas are benign. Over-secretion of pituitary hormones (most commonly prolactin, growth hormone, or ACTH), under-secretion of hormones, or localised or generalised pressure effects can all cause symptoms.

      Compression of the optic chiasm can result in visual field defects, the most common of which is bitemporal hemianopia. This is caused by compression of the nasal retinal fibres, which carry visual impulses from temporal vision across the optic chiasm to the contralateral sides before continuing to the optic tracts.

      The interruption of the visual pathways distal to the optic chiasm causes a homonymous visual field defect. The loss of the right or left halves of each eye’s visual field is referred to as homonymous hemianopia. It’s usually caused by a middle or posterior cerebral artery territory stroke that affects the occipital lobe’s optic radiation or visual cortex.

      Binasal hemianopia is a condition in which vision is lost in the inner half of both eyes (nasal or medial). It’s caused by compression of the temporal visual pathways, which don’t cross at the optic chiasm and instead continue to the ipsilateral optic tracts. Binasal hemianopia is a rare complication caused by the internal carotid artery impinging on the temporal (lateral) visual fibres.

      A monocular visual loss (that is, loss of vision in only one eye) can be caused by a variety of factors, but if caused by nerve damage, the damage would be proximal to the optic chiasm on the ipsilateral side.

      A central scotoma is another name for central visual field loss. Every normal mammalian eye has a scotoma, also known as a blind spot, in its field of vision. The optic disc is a region of the retina that lacks photoreceptor cells and is where the retinal ganglion cell axons that make up the optic nerve exit the retina. When both eyes are open, visual signals that are absent in one eye’s blind spot are provided for the other eye by the opposite visual cortex, even if the other eye is closed.

      Scotomata can be caused by a variety of factors, including demyelinating disease such as multiple sclerosis, damage to nerve fibre layer in the retina, methyl alcohol, ethambutol, quinine, nutritional deficiencies, and vascular blockages either in the retina or in the optic nerve.

      Bilateral scotoma can occur when a pituitary tumour compresses the optic chiasm, causing a bitemporal paracentral scotoma, which then spreads out to the periphery, causing bitemporal hemianopsia. A central scotoma in a pregnant woman could be a sign of severe pre-eclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by? ...

    Correct

    • The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?

      Your Answer: Loose connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly.

      The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus.

      The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands.

      The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres.

      The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically...

    Correct

    • Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?

      Your Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).

      Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Rocuronium in renal failure

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five...

    Incorrect

    • In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks.

      Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Positive inotrope effect

      Correct Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation

      Explanation:

      Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (?1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a?1 and ?2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
      – Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
      – Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?

      Your Answer: Biguanides

      Correct Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.

      Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.

      The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.

      Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.

      Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the emergency department. On examination, he complains of nausea and is notably sweating. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads, as well as sinus bradycardia. A myocardial infarction can cause a sinus bradycardia.

      The sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node receive arterial supply from which vessel?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left marginal artery comes off the left circumflex artery, and runs alongside the heart.

      The left circumflex artery is one of the bifurcations of the left coronary artery, and eventually forms the left marginal artery.

      An occlusion in the left circumflex artery often results in a lateral MI.

      The right marginal artery originates from the right coronary artery.

      The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is another bifurcation of the left coronary artery. An occlusion in the LAD would often result in an anteroseptal MI as is diagnosed on ECG by noting changes in leads V1-V4.

      The right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, and bifurcates to give rise to many branches, including the sinoatrial artery which supplies the sinoatrial (SA) node in 50-70% of cases, the artery of the atrioventricular (AV) node in 50-60% of cases, the right acute marginal artery which supplies the right ventricle. It also supplies the right atrium, interatrial septum and the posterior inferior third of the interventricular septum.

      Arrhythmias and inferior MI often occurs as a result of an occlusion in the right coronary artery, and can be diagnosed by ECG changes in leads II, III and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom...

    Correct

    • Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.

      Which term can be used to describe that?

      Your Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

      An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

      A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the operating room. During general anaesthesia, ventilation is achieved using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1L/min, with and air/oxygen and sevoflurane combination. The capnograph trace is normal.

      Changes to the end tidal and baseline CO2 measurements at 10 and 20 mins respectively are seen on the capnograph below:

      10 minutes 20 minutes
      End-tidal CO2 4.9 kPa 8.4 kPa
      Baseline end-tidal CO2 0.2 kPa 2.4 kPa

      The other vitals were as follows:
      Pulse 100-105 beats per minute
      Systolic blood pressure 120-133 mmHg
      O2 saturation 99%.

      The next most important immediate step is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Recalibrate the capnograph

      Correct Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      This scenario describes rebreathing management.

      Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.

      It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.

      Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.

      Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:

      1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
      2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
      4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide?

      Your Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      12.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/5) 40%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (4/6) 67%
Statistical Methods (1/3) 33%
Pathophysiology (6/8) 75%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/2) 50%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed