-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?
Your Answer: Pleura
Correct Answer: Subclavian artery
Explanation:The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein
Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.
One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer: Bundle of His
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?
Your Answer: pKA
Explanation:For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).
The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.
Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus.
What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.
The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.
The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.
The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer: Antebrachial fascia
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?
Your Answer: Slow sodium influx
Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?
Your Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.The remaining terms are made up.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?
Your Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
the total use of antibiotics.
There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:- Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) - Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
- Breast cancer surgery
- Hysterectomy
- Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
- Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
regions - Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
tract infection and blood poisoning).
In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis. - Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer: Below a mean arterial pressure of 60 mmHg the cerebral blood flow is proportional to the systolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?
Your Answer: It lies within the carotid sheath
Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein
Explanation:The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.
It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.
The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.
In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?Your Answer: Albumin
Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin
Explanation:The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.
The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.
Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.
A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.
Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?
Your Answer: Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
Correct Answer: ALA synthetase
Explanation:Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.
There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which of the following facts about T cells is true?
Your Answer: Survive for two weeks
Correct Answer: Secrete IL-2 when activated
Explanation:T cells function as a part of the body’s adaptive immune system. There are different types of T cells, including:
Cytotoxic T cells: Function as killer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules into the membrane of targeted cells.
T-Helper cells: When activated, they function to activate other immune cell types, assist in antibody production with B cells and releasing cytokines including IL-2.
Memory T cells: Function as to provide immune memory against already encountered antigens.
T cells possess specific glycoproteins and receptors on their surface.
T-Helper cells work with HLA class II antigens on the cell surfaces in order to recognise foreign antigens
T cells survive ranges from a few weeks, to a lifetime depending on the subtype in question.
Immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of, and secreted by B-lymphocytes.
Native antigens are recognised by B cells. T cells only recognise antigens that have been processed by the cells and presented on the surface of the cell.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He is breathing on his own, and a supraglottic airway is being maintained via a circle system with air/oxygen and sevoflurane.
With a fresh gas flow of 14 L/min, the end-tidal CO2 reading is 8.1 kPa. CO2 pressure is 1.9 kPa. The percentages of oxygen inhaled and exhaled are 38 and 33 percent, respectively.
What do you think is the most likely source for these readings?Your Answer: Incompetent expiratory valve
Explanation:The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.
Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.
The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.
Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.
Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (mean)
Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and the coeliac trunk
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.
The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?
Your Answer: Chi squared test
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.
His BMI is equal to 50.
Which of the following formulas is the most appropriate for calculating a suxamethonium dose in order to achieve optimal intubating conditions?Your Answer: 1-1.5 × lean body weight (mg)
Correct Answer: 1-1.5 × actual body weight (mg)
Explanation:The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.
Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.
Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.
Other scalars include:
The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.
Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.
Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:
Your Answer: Mivacurium
Correct Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.
The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:
suxamethonium: 0.27
rocuronium: 0.31
vecuronium: 0.04
pancuronium: 0.07
cisatracurium: 0.04
mivacurium: 0.08 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Inhibits secretion of prolactin from pituitary gland
Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:
Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1
Which statement applies to the results?Your Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?
Your Answer: A patient on subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) prophylaxis 6 hours after last dose
Correct Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose
Explanation:The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.
Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas.
Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer: Temporomandibular joint dysfunction
Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.
Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4–8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.
An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent tonsillectomy showed a decrease in incidence from 10% to 5% following a new management protocol.
Which of the following best estimates the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for one additional patient to benefit from the new management of PONV?Your Answer: 20
Explanation:The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.
To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:
NNT = 1/ARR
Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) – EER (Experimental Event Rate).
NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.
In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:
ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05
NNT = 1/0.05 = 20
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique?
Your Answer: Documents and records
Correct Answer: Questionnaires
Explanation:The Delphi is a group facilitation technique that seeks to obtain consensus on the opinions of `experts’ through a series of structured questionnaires (commonly referred to as rounds). By using successive questionnaires, opinions are considered in a non-adversarial manner, with the current status of the groups’ collective opinion being repeatedly fed back. Studies employing the Delphi make use of individuals who have knowledge of the topic being investigated
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.
Your Answer: Has a sodium concentration of 125-135 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres
Explanation:Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.
The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)
For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .
Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.
The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer: Vasodilation of mesenteric vessels via D1 receptors
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
Venepuncture is being performed on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa. At which of the following points does the basilic vein pass deep under the muscle?
Your Answer: Midway up the humerus
Explanation:The basilic vein is one of the primary veins that drain the upper limb, like the cephalic vein. It begins as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb passes along the posteromedial aspect of the forearm, moving towards the anterior surface of the elbow.
The basilic vein pierces the deep fascia at the elbow and joins the venae commitantes of the brachial vein to form the axillary vein.
The basilic vein passes deep under the muscles as it moves midway up the humerus. At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.
Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?Your Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)