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Question 1
Incorrect
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What best describes the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg?
Your Answer: All of the posterior compartment leg muscles flex the leg
Correct Answer: One of the posterior compartment leg muscles laterally rotates the femur
Explanation:The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris and are the chief extensors of the foot at the ankle joint. Deep muscles include the tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 2
Correct
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What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop?
Your Answer: Synthesis of proteins
Explanation:The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the factory for the manufacturing of proteins. It contains ribosomes attached to it and transports proteins that are destined for membranes and secretions. The rough ER is connected to the nuclear envelope and to the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus by vesicles that shuttle between the two compartments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?
Your Answer: CHOP
Correct Answer: FOLFOX
Explanation:Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?
Your Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
Stapes,
Temporal styloid process,
Stylohyoid ligament, and
Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
Muscles:
Muscles of face
Occipitofrontalis muscle
Platysma
Stylohyoid muscle
Posterior belly of Digastric
Stapedius muscle
Auricular muscles
Nerve supply: Facial nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?
Your Answer: Oculomotor
Correct Answer: Abducent
Explanation:The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:
Your Answer: Enters the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation
Explanation:Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus myocarditis
Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis
Explanation:Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right axillary node involvement. She underwent radical mastectomy of her right breast. The histopathology report described the tumour to be 4 cm in its maximum diameter with 3 axillary lymph nodes with evidence of tumour. The most likely stage of cancer in this patient is:
Your Answer: IIA
Correct Answer: IIB
Explanation:Stage IIB describes invasive breast cancer in which: the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; small groups of breast cancer cells — larger than 0.2 millimetre but not larger than 2 millimetres — are found in the lymph nodes OR the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; cancer has spread to 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes or to lymph nodes near the breastbone (found during a sentinel node biopsy) OR the tumour is larger than 5 centimetres but has not spread to the axillary lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?
Your Answer: Cupola
Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Explanation:The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?
Your Answer: Foramen spinosum
Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 12
Correct
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During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?
Your Answer: Epiploic appendages
Explanation:The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.
Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.
Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process?
Your Answer: Phagocytosis
Correct Answer: Leukocyte adhesion
Explanation:Steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function include:
1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel.
2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls.
3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes. Interaction of these results in adhesion.
4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product.
5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: normal FEV1, arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Which of the following is most accurate about his residual volume?
Your Answer: Is part of vital capacity
Correct Answer: Cannot be measured directly with a spirometer
Explanation:Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after maximal expiration is done. Thus, this is not a part of vital capacity and cannot be measured with a spirometer directly. It can be measured by the methods such as body plethysmography or inert gas dilution. Expiratory reserve volume is vital capacity minus inspiratory capacity. Resting volume of lungs is he sum of residual volume and expiratory reserve volume. Lungs recoil inward until the recoil pressure becomes zero, which corresponds to a volume significantly lower than residual volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed spindle shaped cells with high nuclear/cytoplasm ratio on immunohisto chemical staining. These pleomorphic cells were vimentin positive, cytokeratin negative and cd45 negative. This type of neoplasm is most commonly found in which patient?
Your Answer: A 28 year old patient with obstructive jaundice and positive trousseau sign
Correct Answer: A 15-year-old boy with a mass in the left femur and lung metastases
Explanation:A histology report that describes spindle shaped cells which are vimentin positive suggests osteosarcoma and hematogenous spread to the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia; Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:
Your Answer: The pupil
Correct Answer: The iris
Explanation:The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in the proximal and distal interphalangeal joins, and back pain which has increased over the last 4 years and worsens after activity. X-rays reveal Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes in her interphalangeal joints and the presence of osteophytes in her spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis is most common in older adults, predominating in women between the ages of 40 and 70; after this age, men and women are affected equally. It affects an entire joint, with disruption and potential loss of joint cartilage, along with other joint changes, including bone hypertrophy (osteophyte formation). The pain is usually gradual and is worse after activity, with occasional joint swelling. X-ray findings include marginal osteophytes, narrowing of the joint space, increased density of the subchondral bone, subchondral cyst formation, bony remodelling and joint effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?
Your Answer: Subclavian vein
Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic vein
Explanation:The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle
Explanation:The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A woman that presented with dyspnoea, chest pain and cough was found to have a serous pleural effusion. This finding is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congestive heart failure
Explanation:A pleural effusion is defined as an abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural space. Pleural effusion can result from excess fluid production or decreased absorption or both. Thoracentesis and laboratory testing help determine the origin of the accumulated fluid. Serous fluid accumulation in the pleural space indicates the presence of a hydrothorax and is most likely to develop secondary to congestive heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Substantia nigra
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.
Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The physician suggested lifestyle modification for his patient because his present condition could increase his risk for the development of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus. What is the most common predisposing factor for the development of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Barret’s oesophagus is attributed primarily to gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. The chronic acidic environment damages the squamous epithelial lining of the oesophagus, and subsequently undifferentiated pluripotent stem cells develop into columnar epithelium, this is then known as Barret’s oesophagitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 26-year-old man sought admission due to persistent non-bloody diarrhoea. The patient is HIV-positive. Examination of stool sample showed numerous acid-fast cysts. Which of the following organism is the most likely cause of diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium parvum
Explanation:Cryptosporidium parvum is one of several species that causes cryptosporidiosis, a parasitic disease of the mammalian intestinal tract. Primary symptoms of C. parvum infection are acute, watery, and non-bloody diarrhoea. C. parvum infection is of particular concern in immunocompromised patients, where diarrhoea can reach 10–15 l per day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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When does the heart rate decrease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pressure on the eyeball
Explanation:Various vagotonic manoeuvres (e.g. Valsalva manoeuvre, carotid sinus massage, pressure on eyeballs, ice-water facial immersion, swallowing of ice-cold water) result in increased parasympathetic tone through the vagus nerve which results in a decrease in heart rate. These manoeuvres may be clinically useful in terminating supraventricular arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid
Explanation:The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral pneumonia
Explanation:Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by the peritoneum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Of the organs listed, the spleen is the only organ that is completely intraperitoneal, that is entirely in the peritoneum. Other completely intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, liver, appendix and the small intestines. The kidney, Inferior vena cava, aorta and the suprarenal glands are all retroperitoneal organs. The pancreas and the duodenum are partially retroperitoneal, with the tail of the pancreas in the peritoneum found in the splenorenal ligament while only the first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. For the intraperitoneal organs remember SALTD SPRSS
S = Stomach
A = Appendix
L = Liver
T = Transverse colon
D = Duodenum (only the 1st part)
S = Small intestines
P = Pancreas (only the tail)
R = Rectum (only the upper 3rd)
S = Sigmoid colon
S = Spleen
For retroperitoneal, just remember SADPUCKER:
S = suprarenal glands
A = Aorta and IVC
D = Duodenum (all but the 1st part)
P = Pancreas (all but the tail)
U = Ureter and bladder
C = Colon (ascending and descending)
K = Kidneys
E = Oesophagus
R = Rectum (Lower two-thirds)
For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:
P = Pancreas
C = Colon (only ascending and descending)
D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On further investigation, he was found to have a right-sided retroperitoneal mass. On enquiry, he gave a history of intermittent hypertensive attacks. 24-hour urine specimen revealed raised metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid levels. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Explanation:A neuroendocrine tumour of the chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla, pheochromocytoma secretes excessive catecholamines – adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). Pheochromocytomas are also known as the ‘10% tumour’. This is because 10% of them are bilateral, 10% are malignant, and 10% are extra-adrenal. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are less common than pheochromocytomas and arise in the ganglia of sympathetic nervous system. Around 25% of pheochromocytomas are familial. Symptoms are described as feeling of ‘impending doom’, and include tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations, anxiety, headaches and pallor. Orthostatic hypertension is typically seen where there is a more than 100 mmHg fall in systolic pressure when the patient stands up. Pheochromocytomas can also lead to malignant hypertension. Diagnosis is by measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in blood or in 24-hour urine, after exclusion of other possible causes such as stress, hypoglycaemia and drugs (methyldopa, dopamine agonists, ganglion-blocking antihypertensive). Imaging is also needed to localize the tumour. Localization of the tumour can also be done by Iodine-131 meta-iodobenzylguanidine (I131-MIBG) imaging.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following proteins acts as cofactor in the thrombin-induced activation of anticoagulant protein C?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombomodulin
Explanation:Thrombomodulin is a protein cofactor expressed on the surface of endothelial cells. Thrombomodulin binds with thrombin forming a complex which activates protein C, initiating the anticoagulant pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles of a man who has undergone starvation for 7 days?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum fatty acids
Explanation:Starvation is the most extreme form of malnutrition. Prolonged starvation can lead to permanent organ damage and can be fatal. Starved individuals eventually lose significant fat and muscle mass as the body uses these for energy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral
Explanation:The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic normochromic anaemia. What is the best treatment for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythropoietin
Explanation:E erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that is released by the kidney. It is responsible for the regulation of red blood cell production in the body. It can be made using recombinant technology and is used in the treatment of anaemia of chronic renal failure and in patients under going chemotherapy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm
Explanation:Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly for monitoring of tumour size as there is a strong correlation with malignant potential and tumour size. Which of the following is the most likely tumour in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The distinction between a benign renal adenoma and renal adenocarcinoma is commonly made on the basis of size. Tumours less than 2 cm in size rarely become malignant as opposed to those greater than 3 cm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle rectal
Explanation:Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.
The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.
The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.
Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 41
Incorrect
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In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation:A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst the registrar was performing this procedure she made a median cut too far through the perineal body cutting the structure immediately posterior. Which structure is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External anal sphincter
Explanation:An episiotomy is an incision that is made whenever there is a risk of a tear during vaginal deliver. A posterolateral incision, as opposed to a median incision is preferred. Of the options given, the external anal sphincter lies right posterior to the perineal body. The sacrospinous and the sacrotuberous ligaments are deep in the perineum that they should not be involved in this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé
Explanation:Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Explanation:The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.
The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.
Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.
Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.
Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.
The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what is its stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T1
Explanation:The TNM staging used for penile cancer is as follows:
TX: primary tumour cannot be assessed
T0: primary tumour is not evident
Tis: carcinoma in situ is present
Ta: non-invasive verrucous carcinoma is present
T1: tumour is invading subepithelial connective tissue
T2: tumour is invading the corpora spongiosum or cavernosum
T3: tumour invading the urethra or prostate
T4: tumour invading other adjacent structures.
In this case, the patient has a T1 tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following arteries would most likely be injured if a surgeon accidentally tore this ligament?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short gastric
Explanation:The short gastric arteries arise from the end of the splenic arteries and form five to seven branches. The short gastric arteries inside the gastrosplenic ligament from the left to the right, supply the greater curvature of the stomach. The hepatic artery proper runs inside the hepatoduodenal ligament. The right gastric artery and the left gastric artery are contained in the hepatogastric ligament. The caudal pancreatic artery branches off from the splenic artery and supplies the tail of the pancreas. The middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. The splenic artery does not travel in the gastrosplenic ligament and so it would not be damaged by a tear to this ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen in on the blood count of a middle-aged lady about to undergo elective surgery. On enquiry, she mentions feeling tired for a few months. Which of the following investigations should be carried out in her to reach a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate
Explanation:Elevated levels of MCV indicates megaloblastic anaemia, which are associated with hypersegmented neutrophils. Likely causes include vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Megaloblastic anaemia results from defective synthesis of DNA. As RNA production continues, the cells enlarge with a large nucleus. The cytoplasmic maturity becomes greater than nuclear maturity. Megaloblasts are produced initially in the marrow, before blood. Dyspoiesis makes erythropoiesis ineffective, causing direct hyperbilirubinemia and hyperuricemia. As all cell lines are affected, reticulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia develop. Large, oval blood cells (macro-ovalocytes) are released in the circulation, along with presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor IX deficiency
Explanation:Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery
Explanation:The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman weighs 75 kg. In this patient, total body water, intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid are respectively:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 45 l, 30 l, 15 l
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. The total body water (TBW) content of humans is approximately 60% of body weight. Two-thirds is located in the intracellular and one-third in the extracellular compartment. So, in a 75-kg individual, TBW = 60 × 75/100 = 45 l. Intracellular content = 2/3 × 45 = 30 l and extracellular content = 1/3 × 45 = 15 l.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed with meralgia parasthetica. The condition was discovered to be caused by the pinching of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Injuries at what spinal levels usually affect this nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L2, L3
Explanation:The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh arises from the dorsal division of the lumbar plexus of the second and the third lumbar nerves (L2 – L3). Spinal injuries at this level are likely to affect the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve innervates the skin on the lateral aspect of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus
Explanation:Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.
Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.
Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.
Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.
Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.
Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
A Monospot test in a 17-year old boy presenting with fever, multiple palpable lymph nodes and mild icterus was positive. His blood investigation is likely to show which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atypical lymphocytosis
Explanation:Epstein-Barr virus is the causative agent for infectious mononucleosis leading to presence of atypical lymphocytes in blood. Usually symptomatic in older children and adults, the incubation period is 30-50 days. Symptoms include fatigue, followed by fever, adenopathy and pharyngitis. Fatigue can last for months and is maximum in first few weeks. Fever spikes in the afternoon or early evening, with temperature around 39.5 – 40.5 °C. The ‘typhoidal’ form where fatigue and fever predominate has a low onset and resolution. Pharyngitis resemble that due to streptococcus and can be severe and painful. Lymphadenopathy is bilaterally symmetrical and can involve any nodes, specially the cervical ones. Mild splenomegaly is seen in 50% cases, usually in 2-3rd week. Mild tender hepatomegaly can occur. Less common manifestations include maculopapular eruptions, jaundice, periorbital oedema and palatal enanthema. Diagnostic tests include full blood count and a heterophil antibody test. Morphologically abnormal lymphocytes account for 80% cells and are heterogenous, unlike leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
Driving pressure is considered to be a strong predictor of mortality in patients with ARDS. What is the normal mean intravascular driving pressure for the respiratory circulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mmHg
Explanation:Driving pressure is the difference between inflow and outflow pressure. For the pulmonary circulation, this is the difference between pulmonary arterial (pa) and left atrial pressure (pLA). Normally, mean driving pressure is about 10 mmHg, computed by subtracting pLA (5 mmHg) from pA (15 mmHg). This is in contrast to a mean driving pressure of nearly 100 mmHg in the systemic circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin therapy
Explanation:Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days. She felt dizzy and weak, and thus decided to seek medical attention. At the emergency room her BP was 80/60 mmHg with a pulse of 118/min. What is the most appropriate intravenous treatment that should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isotonic saline
Explanation:Normal saline is typically the first fluid used when hypovolemia is severe enough to threaten the adequacy of blood circulation. It is isotonic and has long been believed to be the safest fluid to give quickly in large volumes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus
Explanation:A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 PRU
Explanation:Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Explanation:Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of satiety
Explanation:The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scurvy
Explanation:Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with bladder cancer and tumour invasion of the perivesical fat. What is the stage of the patient's bladder cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T3
Explanation:Bladder cancer is the growth of abnormal or cancerous cells on the inner lining of the bladder wall. The staging is as follows; stage 0is (Tis, N0, M0): Cancerous cells in the inner lining tissue of the bladder only, stage I (T1, N0, M0): tumour has spread onto the bladder wall, stage II (T2, N0, M0): tumour has penetrated the inner wall and is present in muscle of the bladder wall, stage III (T3, N0, M0): tumour has spread through the bladder to fat around the bladder and stage IV: (T4, N0, M0): tumour has grown through the bladder wall and into the pelvic or abdominal wall. The stage of cancer in the case presented is T3 because of the invasion of perivesical fat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man who presented to the out patient clinic with chest pain. Such a tumour is likely to compress the following structure:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The boundaries of the posterior mediastinum are: the superiorly through the sternal angle and T4/5, inferiorly, the diaphragm, anteriorly, by the middle mediastinal structures and posteriorly by the spinal cord. Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. The oesophagus is the only structure in the posterior mediastinum among the choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:
– The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.
– The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.
– The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.
– The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.
– The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with karyorrhexis and fragmentation. The overall integrity of the tissue structure is preserved. This is typical of which of the following pathologies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Viral infections will cause necrosis of the hepatocytes with characteristic changes of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation.
Brown atrophy of the heart is due to accumulation of lipofuscin in the myocardium.
Tissue destruction associated with transplant rejection leads to widespread loss of structural integrity.
Single cell necrosis is not characteristically seen in chronic alcoholic liver.
Barbiturate overdose will result in hypertrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Carcinoma insitu will cause dysplastic cells without the overall structural integrity being disrupted.
Atrophy is due to apoptosis with ordered cellular fragmentation and phagocytosis and will not induce an inflammatory process unlike necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool was diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer that had eroded the gastroduodenal artery. The patient was then rushed into theatre for an emergency procedure to control the haemorrhage. If the surgeon decided to ligate the gastroduodenal artery at its origin, which of the following arteries would most likely experience retrograde blood flow from collateral sources as a result of the ligation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right gastroepiploic
Explanation:In the stomach and around the duodenum, there are many arterial anastomoses. Ligation of the gastroduodenal artery would result in the retrograde flow of blood from the left gastroepiploic artery to the right gastroepiploic artery. The blood flows into the right gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the gastroduodenal artery from the left gastroepiploic artery that branches from the splenic artery. This retrograde blood flow is aimed at providing alternate blood flow to the greater curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The contents of the carpal tunnel include:
– Median nerve
– Flexor digitorum supervicialis
– Flexor digitorum profundus
– Flexor policis longus
– Flexor carpi radialis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peroneal
Explanation:The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has nine to twelve valves
Explanation:It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal structure and no increase in serum glucose after oral intake of a protein-rich diet. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is responsible for this disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase
Explanation:The most common glycogen storage disorder is von Gierke’s disease or glycogen storage disease type I. It results from a deficiency of enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which affects the ability of liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and gluconeogenesis; leading to severe hypoglycaemia. There is also increased glycogen storage in the liver and kidneys causing enlargement and various problems in their functioning. The disease also causes lactic acidosis and hyperlipidaemia. The main treatment includes frequent or continuous feedings of corn-starch or other carbohydrates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is diagnosed with emphysema and cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following condition may be the cause of both cirrhosis and emphysema in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a condition characterised by the lack of a protein that protects the lungs and liver from damage, called alpha1-antytripsin. The main complications of this condition are liver diseases such as cirrhosis and chronic hepatitis, due to accumulation of abnormal alpha 1-antytripsin and emphysema due to loss of the proteolytic protection of the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II
Explanation:Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the peripheral blood will become an activated macrophage in this granuloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monocyte
Explanation:Monocytes are leukocytes that protect the body against infections and move to the site of infection within 8-12 hours to deal with it. They are produced in the bone marrow and shortly after being produced are released into the blood stream where they circulate until an infection is detected. When called upon they leave the circulation and transform into macrophages within the tissue fluid and thus gain the capability to phagocytose the offending substance. Monocyte count is part of a complete blood picture. Monocytosis is the state of excess monocytes in the peripheral blood and may be indicative of various disease states. Examples of processes that can increase a monocyte count include: • chronic inflammation • stress response • hyperadrenocorticism • immune-mediated disease • pyogranulomatous disease • necrosis • red cell regeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness. He is administered sodium bicarbonate used to treat:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Sodium bicarbonate is indicated in the management of metabolic acidosis, which may occur in severe renal disease, uncontrolled diabetes, circulatory insufficiency due to shock or severe dehydration, extracorporeal circulation of blood, cardiac arrest and severe primary lactic acidosis. Bicarbonate is given at 50-100 mmol at a time under scrupulous monitoring of the arterial blood gas readings. This intervention, however, has some serious complications including lactic acidosis, and in those cases, should be used with great care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
What is the normal duration of the ST segment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.08 s
Explanation:The ST segment lies between the QRS complex and the T-wave. The normal duration of the ST segment is 0.08 s. ST-segment elevation or depression may indicate myocardial ischaemia or infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis
Explanation:Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 45-year old lady underwent biopsy of a soft, fleshy mass involving her left breast. The biopsy showed lymphoid stroma with minimal fibrosis, surrounding sheets of large vesicular cells with frequent mitoses. Which condition is she most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of breast
Explanation:Medullary carcinoma is a malignant tumour of the breast with well-defined boundaries and accounts for 5% of all breast cancers. Other special features include a larger size of the neoplastic cells and presence of lymphoid cells at tumour edge. Differential diagnosis includes invasive ductal carcinoma. Prognosis is usually good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Women's Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Explanation:One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tyrosine
Explanation:Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature. This process is best described as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Organisation of the haematoma
Explanation:Formation of granulation tissue at the periphery of the hematoma is a normal process leading to resolution. This granulation tissue is composed of new capillaries, fibroblasts and collagen. Lysis of a blood clot can occur, but the actual process of this response is known as organization, wherein the scar tissue will become part of the vessels. This is followed by recanalization and embolization which can lead to eventual complications. Proliferation of a clot will occur due to an imbalance in the clotting and lysing systems. Thrombosis has nothing to do with the process described above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
-
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
Atractyloside is an inhibitor of electron transport chain. It is expected to have little or no effect on the functioning of which of the following cell types?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red blood cells
Explanation:Electron transport chain is a series of electron carriers that are embedded in the mitochondrial membrane. It is the place where ATP is made. Inhibiting the electron transport chain will stop production of ATP. Red blood cells are the only cell in the given option which do not contain ATP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Could be damaged by a fracture of the neck of the fibula
Explanation:The peroneus brevis is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superficial peroneal nerve which is one of the two terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. The common peroneal nerve winds around the neck of the fibula and can be injured in cases of fractured neck of fibula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy with a lump in the inguinal region. The lump is protruding from the superficial inguinal ring. The student correctly concluded that it was:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Either a direct or an indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:It is not possible to tell if an inguinal hernia is direct or indirect just by palpating it. Despite the fact that indirect inguinal hernias commonly come out of the superficial inguinal ring to enter the scrotum, direct inguinal hernia might still do this.
Femoral hernia goes through the femoral ring into the femoral canal (has nothing to do with the superficial inguinal ring).
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes lie in the superficial fascia parallel to the inguinal ligament; it would therefore feel more superficial and would not be mistaken for a hernia protruding through the inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A patient is diagnosed with Brucellosis. What is the mode of transmission of this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unpasteurised milk
Explanation:Brucellosis is a highly contagious zoonosis caused by ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals, or close contact with their secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
-
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old male smoker, who had been self-medicating with oral steroids for the last two years due to persistent breathlessness presented to the doctor complaining of a productive cough, fever and chest pain. A chest X-ray revealed bilateral patchy opacities. He was diagnosed with bilateral bronchopneumonia. Which of these organisms is most probably causing these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nocardia asteroides
Explanation:Nocardia is a Gram-positive aerobic actinomycete. Several species have been identified but the most common human pathogen is Nocardia asteroides. The predominant clinical finding in the majority of patients affected by nocardiosis is pulmonary disease. Predisposing factors for pulmonary nocardiosis include leukaemia, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, organ transplantation, diabetes and receiving prolonged corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
-
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial temporal
Explanation:The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area
Explanation:A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose
Explanation:The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and chills. She has a history of recurrent UTI and complains of dysuria and urinary frequency. Urinary white blood cell count is >200 cell/high power field. If urine culture is performed, what is the most likely organism that will grow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:The pathogen that most likely causes recurrent urinary tract infection in young women are E. coli, Enterococcus and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver flukes
Explanation:Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.
Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.
Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.
Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
What class of drugs does buspirone belong to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anxiolytic
Explanation:Buspirone is an anxiolytic agent and a serotonin-receptor agonist that belongs to the azaspirodecanedione class of compounds. It shows no potential for addiction compared with other drugs commonly prescribed for anxiety, especially the benzodiazepines. The development of tolerance has not been noted. It is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorders. It is also commonly used to augment antidepressants in the treatment of major depressive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells
Explanation:Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed on his head and shoulder tip, stretching the left side of his neck. A neurological examination revealed that the fifth and sixth cervical nerves had been torn from the spinal cord. What is the most obvious clinical manifestation of this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abduction
Explanation:In the case of injuries to the upper roots of the brachial plexus there is complete loss of abduction. The muscle performing this movement is the supraspinatus. This initiates the movement, followed by the deltoid muscle, which allows for complete abduction. Both these muscles are innervated by nerves originating from C5 and C6. The injury to these roots results in a condition named Erb-Duchenne’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
Anthrax is an infection caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax spores have been used as a biological warfare weapon. What is the drug of choice in treating anthrax infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Early antibiotic treatment of anthrax is essential. A delay may significantly lessen the chances for survival of the patient. Treatment for anthrax infection include large doses of intravenous and oral antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin), doxycycline, erythromycin, vancomycin, or penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor
Explanation:Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte
Explanation:An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
A correct statement about the RECTUM:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems
Explanation:The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 37-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents with 10 days recurrent low fever. Patient underwent laboratory work up and was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. What is the most likely organism that caused the infective endocarditis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus viridans
Explanation:Subacute bacterial endocarditis is often due to streptococci of low virulence, mainly streptococcus viridans. It is a mild to moderate illness which progresses slowly over weeks and months (>2weeks) and has low propensity to hematogenously seed to extracardiac sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath and persistent cough over the past 8 months. He reveals that in the 1960s he worked for several years as a boiler operator. Chest X-ray shows diffuse lung infiltrates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asbestosis
Explanation:Asbestosis is a chronic lung disease which leads to long-term respiratory complications and is caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibres. Symptoms due to long exposure to asbestos usually appear 10 to 40 years after initial exposure and include shortness of breath, cough, weight loss, clubbing of the fingers and chest pain. Typical chest X-ray findings include diffuse lung infiltrates that cause the appearance of shaggy heart borders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation:The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver damage
Explanation:Various conditions may prolong the prothrombin time (PT), including: warfarin use, vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, hypofibrinogenemia, heparin infusion, massive blood transfusion and hypothermia. Liver disease causes prolonging of PT due to diminished synthesis of clotting factors. Dark urine colour and jaundice are indicators of the presence of a liver disease in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is found to be 1cm, rubbery, mobile with no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography reveals no microcalcifications and the opposite breast appears normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:A benign breast tumour, fibroadenoma is common below the age of 30 years and occurs due to oestrogenic excess. It is characterised by proliferation of both glandular and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas are usually solitary and are mobile, not fixed to surrounding structures. The tumour is elastic, nodular and encapsulated with a grey-white cut surface. The two main histological types include intracanalicular and pericanalicular types, with both types often present in the same tumour. In the intracanalicular type, the stromal proliferation component predominates causing compression of ducts making them appear slit-like. In pericanalicular type, the fibrous stroma dominates around the ductal spaces so that they remain oval on cross section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Women's Health
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid
Explanation:The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma
Explanation:Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
-
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anasarca
Explanation:Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: +10 cmH2O
Explanation:To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fine touch
Explanation:The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X
Explanation:The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) innervates both the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
Explanation:Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Physiology
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
Which cells are most commonly seen in a granulomatous lesion that suggests an underlying chronic inflammation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphocytes
Explanation:Lymphocytes and monocytes are commonly and characteristically recognised in a case of chronic inflammation.
Eosinophils and neutrophils are seen with acute inflammation.
Mast cells release histamine in early inflammation.
Basophils are seen with allergies.
Plasma cells are seen with viral infection.
Platelets are not characteristic of any type of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia on Pap smear of a 34-year old lady is most likely associated with which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus infection
Explanation:CIN (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia) is considered a precursor of cervical cancer and is likely caused due to infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35 or 39. The risk factors for cervical cancer include multiple sex partners, young age at the time of first intercourse, intercourse with men whose previous partners had cervical cancer. Also, smoking and immunodeficient states are considered contributory. CIN is graded as mild (grade I), moderate (grade II) and severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ (grade III). CIN III rarely regresses spontaneously and can lead to invasive carcinoma by invading the basement membrane. Squamous cell carcinomas are the commonest cervical cancer seen in 80-85% of all cases. Others are commonly adenocarcinomas. Cervical cancer can spread by direct extension, lymphatic spread to pelvic and para-aortic nodes or by hematogenous route.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Women's Health
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man, after radiological evaluation and thoracentesis, was found to have chylothorax. What is the most probable cause of this diagnose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mediastinal malignant lymphoma
Explanation:Chylothorax is a potentially lethal condition characterized by fluid (chyle) accumulation in the pleural cavity, resulting from disruption of lymphatic drainage in the thoracic duct. Chyle is a fluid rich in triglycerides and chylomicrons and can originate from the thorax, the abdomen or both. Malignant tumours, especially lymphoma, are the most common causes of nontraumatic chylothorax. Bronchogenic carcinoma and trauma are the most common causes after lymphomas. Other rare causes of chylothorax are; granulomatous diseases, tuberculosis, congenital malformations, nephrotic syndrome, hypothyroidism, cirrhosis, decompensated heart failure and idiopathic chylothorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance will be raised in the plasma of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilirubin
Explanation:Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed due to the break down of RBCs. Haemolysis results in haemoglobin that is broken down into a haem portion and globin which is converted into amino acids and used again. Haem is converted into unconjugated bilirubin in the macrophages and shunted to the liver. In the liver it is conjugated with glucuronic acid making it water soluble and thus excreted in the urine. Its normal levels are from 0.2-1 mg/dl. Increased bilirubin causes jaundice and yellowish discoloration of the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary sinus
Explanation:The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae); however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac artery
Explanation:Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
Renin is secreted by pericytes in the vicinity of the afferent arterioles of the kidney from the juxtaglomerular cells. Plasma renin levels are decreased in patients with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary aldosteronism
Explanation:Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome, is excess production of the hormone aldosterone by the adrenal glands resulting in low renin levels. Most patients with primary aldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome) have an adrenal adenoma. The increased plasma aldosterone concentration leads to increased renal Na+ reabsorption, which results in plasma volume expansion. The increase in plasma volume suppresses renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus and these patients usually have low plasma renin levels. Salt restriction and upright posture decrease renal perfusion pressure and therefore increases renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Secondary aldosteronism is due to elevated renin levels and may be caused by heart failure or renal artery stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischial tuberosities
Explanation:The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases
Explanation:Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of myalgia, muscle cramps, and weakness; she is diagnosed with severe hypokalaemia. Which of the following is the most common cause of hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolonged vomiting
Explanation:Potassium is one of the body’s major ions. Nearly 98% of the body’s potassium is intracellular. The ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium is important in determining the cellular membrane potential. Small changes in the extracellular potassium level can have profound effects on the function of the cardiovascular and neuromuscular systems. Hypokalaemia may result from conditions as varied as renal or gastrointestinal (GI) losses, inadequate diet, transcellular shift (movement of potassium from serum into cells) and medications. The important causes of hypokalaemia are:
Renal losses: renal tubular acidosis, hyperaldosteronism, magnesium depletion, leukaemia (mechanism uncertain).
GI losses: vomiting or nasogastric suctioning, diarrhoea, enemas or laxative use, ileal loop.
Medication effects: diuretics (most common cause), β-adrenergic agonists, steroids, theophylline, aminoglycosides.
Transcellular shift: insulin, alkalosis.
Severe hypokalaemia, with serum potassium concentrations of 2.5–3 meq/l, may cause muscle weakness, myalgia, tremor, muscle cramps and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Descending part of the duodenum
Explanation:The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation:Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal
- Pathology
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interleukin-6
Explanation:IL-6 is secreted by the T cells and macrophages and is a pro inflammatory cytokine. It is secreted in response to trauma e.g. burns and tissue damage that leads to inflammation. Apart from this its is also a myokine and is elevated due to muscle contraction. Other functions include: stimulate osteoclast formation when secreted by osteoblasts, mediate fever in acute phase response and are responsible for energy metabolism in muscle and fatty tissues. Inhibitors of IL-6 e.g. oestrogen are used as a treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, and arterial thromboembolism; however, it is not recommended to use it again after 4 days from the first administration. Which complication could arise from repeated use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic reaction
Explanation:Streptokinase belongs to a group of medications known as ‘fibrinolytics’ and is an extracellular metallo-enzyme produced by beta-haemolytic streptococci, used as an effective clot-dissolving medication in patients with myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism. As Streptokinase is a bacterial product, the body has the ability to build up an immunity to it. Therefore, it is recommended that this medication should not be used again after four days from the first administration, as it may not be as effective and may also cause an allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle
Explanation:The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B3
Explanation:Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.
Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.
Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.
Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Physiology
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
An abnormal opening of the urethra on the under surface of the penis (ventral surface) is known as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation:Hypospadias is the condition where the urethra opens along the underside or ventral aspect of penile shaft. First-degree hypospadias is seen in 50-75% cases, where the urethra open on the glans penis. Second-degree hypospadias is seen in 20% cases where the urethra opens on the shaft, and third-degree in 30% cases with the urethra opening on the perineum. The severe cases are usually associated with undescended testis (cryptorchidism) or chordee, where the penis is tethered downwards and not completely separated from the perineum.
It is a common male genital birth defect but varying incidences are noted in different countries. There is no obvious inheritance pattern noted. No exact cause has been determined, however several hypotheses include poor response to androgen, or interference by environmental factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
An intern is attempting to put in an arterial line in an ICU patients left foot. Which is the best site to feel for the pulsation of the dorsalis pedis artery in the foot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Just lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus
Explanation:The dorsalis pedis artery is the continuation of the anterior tibial artery. The pulse of the posterior tibial artery, which comes from the posterior compartment of the leg, may be felt behind the medial malleolus just lateral to the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
The petrous part of the internal carotid artery is located inside of which cranial bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal
Explanation:The petrous segment, or C2, of the internal carotid is that which is inside the petrous part of the temporal bone. This segment extends until the foramen lacerum. The petrous portion classically has three sections: an ascending, or vertical portion; the genu, or bend; and the horizontal portion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate. Which of the following structures is associated with the tensor villi palatini muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate
Explanation:The pterygoid hamulus is a hook-like process at the lower extremity of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone around which the tendon of the tensor veli palatini passes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
Which of the following changes in the histology of the cell is most likely to be accompanied by disruption of the cell membrane following an injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis
Explanation:The process of necrosis ends with the rupture of the cell membrane and the consequent release of the cellular components into the surrounding tissue. Apoptosis, pyknosis and karyorrhexis are not reversible events but the cell membrane remains intact. Cloudy swelling and hydropic changes are also reversible but again the cell membrane remains intact and they are therefore different and distinct from necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caseation necrosis
Explanation:The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain necrosis (caseating tubercles), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cells) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis. A definitive diagnosis of tuberculosis requires identification of the causative organism by microbiological cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor XIII
Explanation:Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lung abscess
Explanation:Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain in her pelvis, along the midline starting from the pubic bone in the front to the sacrum at the back?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina, rectum
Explanation:The pain could have been caused by the urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina or rectum as it involves the pelvic viscera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric
Explanation:The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.
The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.
The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pacinian corpuscle
Explanation:Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
An enlarged lymph node which shows well-defined, prominent paracortical follicles with germinal centres is most likely from which of the following patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 5-year-old boy with a sore throat and runny nose
Explanation:Lymphadenopathy is common in children and is usually reactive in nature. The description fits that of a benign, reactive lymph node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery
Explanation:Most of the veins of the heart open into the coronary sinus. This is a wide venous channel, about 2.25 cm in length, situated in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus and covered by muscular fibres from the left atrium. Its tributaries are the great, small and middle cardiac veins, the posterior vein of the left ventricle and the oblique vein of the left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6 months and a recent-onset of milk discharge from her breasts. She was not pregnant or on any medication. On enquiry, she admitted to having frequent headaches the last 4 months. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia
Explanation:Excessively high levels of prolactin in the blood is called hyperprolactinaemia. Normally, prolactin levels are less than 580 mIU/l in females and less than 450 mIU/l in men. The biologically inactive macroprolactin can lead to a false high reading. However, the patient remains asymptomatic. Dopamine down-regulates prolactin whereas oestrogen upregulates it. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused due to lack of inhibition (compression of pituitary stalk or low dopamine levels), or increased production due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Either of these causes can lead to a prolactin level of 1000-5000 mIU/l. However, levels more than 5000mIU/l are usually associated due to an adenoma and >100,000 mIU/l are seen in macroadenomas (tumours < 1cm in diameter). Increased prolactin causes increased dopamine release from the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus. This increased dopamine in turn, inhibits the GnRH (Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone) thus blocking gonadal steroidogenesis resulting in the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. In women, it includes hypoestrogenism, anovulatory infertility, decreased or irregular menstruation or complete amenorrhoea. It can even cause production of breast milk, loss of libido, vaginal dryness and osteoporosis. In men, the symptoms include impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction and infertility. In men, treatment can be delayed due to late diagnosis as they have no reliable indicator such as menstruation that might indicate a problem. Most of the male patients seek help only when headaches and visual defects start to surface.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence. She is most likely to have:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:Urinary incontinence is the involuntary excretion of urine from one’s body. It is often temporary and it almost always results from an underlying medical condition. Several types include:
– Stress incontinence is the voiding of urine following increased abdominal pressure e.g. laughing, coughing, pregnancy etc. It is the most common form of incontinence in women, most commonly due to pelvic floor muscle weakness, physical changes from pregnancy, childbirth and menopause. In men it is a common problem following a prostatectomy. Most lab results such as urine analysis, cystometry and postvoid residual volume are normal.
– Urge incontinence is involuntary loss of urine occurring for no apparent reason while suddenly feeling the need or urge to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence are involuntary and inappropriate detrusor muscle contractions.
– Functional incontinence – occurs when a person does not recognise the need to go to the toilet, recognise where the toilet is or get to the toilet in time. The urine loss may be large. Causes of functional incontinence include confusion, dementia, poor eyesight, poor mobility, poor dexterity or unwillingness. t
– Overflow incontinence – sometimes people find that they cannot stop their bladders from constantly dribbling or continuing to dribble for some time after they have passed urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renin
Explanation:The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the renin– angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125 ml, with a tidal volume of 500 ml and pa(CO2) of 40 mm Hg. The dead space was determined by Fowler's method. If we assume that the patient's lungs are healthy, what will his mixed expired CO2 tension [pE(CO2)] be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 mmHg
Explanation:According to Bohr’s equation, VD/VT = (pA(CO2) − pE(CO2))/pA(CO2), where pE(CO2) is mixed expired CO2 and pA(CO2) is alveolar CO2pressure. Normally, the pa(CO2) is virtually identical to pA(CO2). Thus, VD/VT = (pa(CO2)) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2). By Fowler’s method, VD/VT= 0.25. In the given problem, (pa(CO2) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2) = (40 − pE(CO2)/40 = 0.25. Thus, pE(CO2) = 30 mmHg. If there is a great perfusion/ventilation inequality, pE(CO2) could be significantly lower than 30 mm Hg, and the patient’s physiological dead space would exceed the anatomical dead space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound to the chest. The wound is in a part of the left lung that might partially fill the costomediastinal recess in full respiration. Where did the weapon strike this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lingula
Explanation:During full inspiration, the lingual-of the left lung partially fills the costomediastinal recess. If the apex of the lung is fully filled with air, it would occupy the copula (the part of the pleura that extends above the first rib). The hilum is part of the lung where the neurovascular structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung and doesn’t expand on inspiration. The middle lobe can expand to fill the costomediastinal recess, however, the middle lobe is on the right lung. The inferior lobe, during full inspiration, might fill the costodiaphragmatic recess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke. She suddenly developed shortness of breath and chest pain, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is most likely to increase in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion ratio
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blockage of an artery in the lungs by an embolus that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream. The change in cardiopulmonary function is proportional to the extent of the obstruction, which varies with the size and number of emboli obstructing the pulmonary arteries. The resulting physiological changes may include pulmonary hypertension with right ventricular failure and shock, dyspnoea with tachypnoea and hyperventilation, arterial hypoxaemia and pulmonary infarction. Consequent alveolar hyperventilation is manifested by a lowered pa(CO2). After occlusion of the pulmonary artery, areas of the lung are ventilated but not perfused, resulting in wasted ventilation with an increased ventilation/perfusion ratio – the physiological hallmark of PE – contributing to a further hyperventilatory state. The risk of blood clots is increased by cancer, prolonged bed rest, smoking, stroke, certain genetic conditions, oestrogen-based medication, pregnancy, obesity, and post surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old woman with severe burns, presented to casualty with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg and pulse of 172/minute. Obviously the patient is in shock. Which type of shock is it more likely to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypovolaemic shock
Explanation:Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the organs and tissues of the body are not receiving a sufficient flow of blood. Lack of blood flow, oxygen and nutrients results in the inability to function properly and damage to many organs. Shock requires immediate treatment because, if left untreated the impaired tissue perfusion and cellular hypoxia can cause irreversible tissue injury, collapse, coma or even death. There are various types of physiological shock, including: cardiogenic (due to heart damage), hypovolaemic (due to low total volume of blood or plasma), neurogenic (due to nervous system damage), septic (due to infections) and anaphylactic shock (due to allergic reactions). Hypovolaemic shock can be caused by blood loss due to trauma, internal bleeding or other fluid loss due to severe burns, prolonged diarrhoea, vomiting and sweating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left gastric
Explanation:The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
Regarding the posterior compartment of the leg, which is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The muscles plantarflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve
Explanation:The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. Deep muscles include tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus. The superficial ( calf muscles) which are responsible for plantarflexion of the foot are supplied by the tibial nerve as follows: the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are supplied by the first and second sacral nerves and the plantaris by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerve (the tibial nerve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation:The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Angiotensin is a peptide that is released in response to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. It has multiple functions but mainly acts to cause vasoconstriction, increase BP and release aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and release of aldosterone causes increased retention of sodium and excretion of potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein
Explanation:Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.
External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Colorectal
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain, a computed tomography showed a large mass in the posterior mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymph nodes
Explanation:Boundaries of the posterior mediastinum include:
Superior: a plane through the sternal angle and T4/5
Inferior: the diaphragm
Anterior: the middle mediastinal structures
Posterior the spinal cord.
Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. In this case, the lymph nodes is the correct answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale
Explanation:The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left gastroepiploic
Explanation:Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the jaw?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protrude the mandible
Explanation:The combined effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles results in the protrusion of the mandible. The lateral pterygoid muscle is a muscle of mastication located superiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle and has two heads. The superior head originates on the infratemporal surface and infratemporal crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, and the inferior head on the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. The insertion of this muscle is on the front margin of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint. The unilateral contraction of the pterygoid muscle results in the laterotrusion of the mandible. It is important to note that the lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that can open the jaw.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigeminal
Explanation:The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased plasma osmolarity
Explanation:The most potent stimulus for ADH release is increased plasma osmolarity. Decreased plasma volume is a less potent stimulus in comparison. However, decrease blood volume and arterial pressure due to severe haemorrhage does lead to ADH secretion. Hypothalamic releasing factors do not control the release of posterior pituitary hormones ADH and oxytocin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury to a major vasculature in the pericardium; the surgeon inserted his left index finger through the transverse pericardial sinus, pulled forward on the two large vessels lying ventral to his finger, and compressed these vessels with his thumb to control the bleeding. Which vessels were these?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary trunk and aorta
Explanation:Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind two great vessels (aorta and pulmonary trunk) and in front of the superior vena cava and is accessed from above as in this case. The brachiocephalic trunk is located above the pericardium and the right pulmonary artery is above the pericardial reflections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ABVD
Explanation:ABVD is a chemotherapy regimen used in the first-line treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It consists of concurrent treatment with the chemotherapy drugs, adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine. It supplanted the older MOPP protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions may cause hypervolaemic hyponatraemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cirrhosis
Explanation:Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia: reduced extracellular fluid
Renal loss of sodium and water; urine Na >20 mmol/day
Causes:
Diuretic use
Salt wasting nephropathy
Cerebral salt wasting
Mineralocorticoid deficiency/adrenal insufficiency
Renal tubular acidosis
Extrarenal loss of sodium and water with renal conservation; urine Na <20 mmol/day
Causes:
Burns
Gastrointestinal loss
Pancreatitis
Blood loss
3rd space loss (bowel obstruction, peritonitis)Hypervolaemic hyponatraemia: expanded intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid but reduced effective arterial blood volume
Causes:
Congestive cardiac failure
Cirrhosis
Nephrotic syndromeEuvolaemic hyponatraemia: expanded intracellular and extracellular fluid but oedema absent
Causes:
Thiazide diuretics (can be euvolaemic or hypovolaemic)
Hypothyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency (can be euvolaemic or hypovolaemic)
SIADH (cancer, central nervous system disorders, drugs, pulmonary disease, nausea, postoperative pain, HIV, infection, Guillain‐Barre syndrome, acute intermittent porphyria)
Decreased solute ingestion (beer potomania/tea and toast diet) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2
Explanation:Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial cells that:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells
Explanation:The mesangium is an inner layer of the glomerulus, within the basement membrane surrounding the glomerular capillaries. The mesangial cells are phagocytic and secrete the amorphous basement membrane-like material known as the mesangial matrix. They are typically separated from the lumen of the capillaries by endothelial cells. The other type of cells in the mesangium are the extraglomerular mesangial cells which form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with two other types of cells: the macula densa of the distal convoluted tubule and juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole. This apparatus controls blood pressure through the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover the lungs. What is the normal amount of pleural fluid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 ml
Explanation:Pleural fluid is a serous fluid produced by the serous membrane covering normal pleurae. Most fluid is produced by the parietal circulation (intercostal arteries) via bulk flow and reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. The total volume of fluid present in the intrapleural space is estimated to be only 2–10 ml. A small amount of protein is present in intrapleural fluid. Normally, the rate of reabsorption increases as a physiological response to accumulating fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Dopamine acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, activating dopamine receptors. It is also a neurohormone released from the hypothalamus. It plays an important role in the reward system. It is believed that dopamine provides a teaching signal to parts of the brain responsible for acquiring new motor sequences (behaviours), by activation of dopamine neurons when an unexpected reward is presented. Loss of dopamine neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway causes Parkinson’s disease. In the frontal lobes, dopamine controls the flow of information from other areas of the brain, and thus, dopamine disorders in this region can cause a decline in neurocognitive functions, especially memory, attention and problem solving. Reduced dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex are thought to contribute to attention-deficit disorder and some symptoms of schizophrenia. Dopamine is also the primary neuroendocrine regulator of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine is also commonly associated with the pleasure system of the brain. This plays a key role in understanding the mechanism of action of drugs (such as cocaine and the amphetamines), which seem to be directly or indirectly related to the increase of dopamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
A patient with chronic renal disease, missed a day of his dialysis schedule., His serum potassium was 7.6 mmol/L when his electrolytes were checked. What is the ECG finding expected in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tented T waves
Explanation:ECG characteristics of hyperkalaemia may show the following changes: P-waves are widened and of low amplitude due to slowing of conduction, widened QRS complex, QRS-T fusion, loss of ST segment and tall tented T waves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils
Explanation:The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
The muscle that forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula, subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle is the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula. It is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint. It also has a synergistic role in extension and lateral flexion of the lumbar spine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Natural killer cell
Explanation:Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachial
Explanation:The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
Blood investigations of a patient with vitamin K deficiency revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. This coagulation abnormality is most probably due to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor VII deficiency
Explanation:Factor VII deficiency is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or reduced activity of clotting factor VII. It may be inherited or acquired at some point during life. Inherited factor VII deficiency is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations of the F7 gene. Factor VII is vitamin K-dependent, as are Factors II, IX and X and therefore lack of this vitamin can cause the development of acquired factor VII deficiency. Other causes of acquired deficiency of this factor include liver disease, sepsis and warfarin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest X ray revealed a perihilar mass with bronchiectasis in the left mid-lung. Which of the following is most probably associated with these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid
Explanation:Bronchial carcinoids are neuroendocrine tumours that arise from Kulchitsky’s cells of the bronchial epithelium. Kulchitsky’s cells belong to the diffuse endocrine system. Patients affected by this tumour may be asymptomatic or may present with symptoms of airway obstruction, like dyspnoea, wheezing, and cough. Other common findings are recurrent pneumonia, haemoptysis, chest pain and paraneoplastic syndromes. Chest radiographs are abnormal in the majority of cases. Peripheral carcinoids usually present as a solitary pulmonary nodule. For central lesions common findings include hilar or perihilar masses with or without atelectasis, bronchiectasis, or consolidation. Bronchial carcinoids most commonly arise in the large bronchi causing obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 195
Incorrect
-
A 45 -year-old female is recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She has a 8-cm-diameter mass in her left breast, with enlarged left axillary node. What is the most likely stage of her disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IIIA
Explanation:Stage IIIA breast cancer is T0–2 N2 M0 or T3 N1-2 M0 disease. It describes invasive breast cancer in which either: the tumour is smaller than 5 cm in diameter and has spread to 4 to 9 axillary lymph nodes; or it is found through imaging studies or clinical exam to have spread to internal mammary nodes (near the breastbone found during imaging tests or a physical exam); or the tumour is larger than 5 cm and has spread to 1 to 9 axillary nodes, or to internal mammary nodes. In this stage, the cancer has not metastasized (spread to distant sites).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right crus
Explanation:The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:
Heart rate 70 beats/min
Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min
Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi
Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min
Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg
Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg
Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)
Explanation:Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
Explanation:Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance vessels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Explanation:Gastric vasoconstrictors include catecholamines, angiotensin II and vasopressin. Vasodilators include vasoactive intestinal peptide and the hormones; gastrin, cholecystokinin and glucagon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the testis affecting an adult male?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seminoma
Explanation:Germ cell tumours represent 90% of primary tumours arising in the testis. They are broadly divided into seminomas and non-seminomas. Seminomas are the most common testicular germ cell tumour seen in 40% cases. The other non-seminomatous histological subtypes include embryonal (25%), teratocarcinoma (25%), teratoma (5%) and pure choriocarcinoma (1%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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