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  • Question 1 - A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including high dose Seretide and tiotropium. She tells you that she is so unwell that she can barely manage the walk the 160 metres to the bus stop.
       
      On examination she looks short of breath at rest. Her BP is 158/74 mmHg, pulse is 76 and regular. There are quiet breath sounds, occasional coarse crackles and wheeze on auscultation of the chest.
       
      Investigations show:
       
      Haemoglobin 14.2 g/dl (13.5-17.7)
      White cell count 8.4 x 109/l (4-11)
      Platelets 300 x 109/l (150-400)
      Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 127 micromol/l (79-118)
      pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 7.5 kPa (4.8-6.1)
      pO2 9.7 kPa (10-13.3)
      Chest x-ray - Prominent upper lobe emphysema.
      FEV1 - 30% of predicted.
       
      Which of the features of her history, examination or investigations would preclude referral for lung reduction surgery?

      Your Answer: FEV1 30% predicted

      Correct Answer: pCO2 7.4

      Explanation:

      Nice guidelines for lung reduction surgery:

      FEV1 > 20% predicted
      PaCO2 < 7.3 kPa
      TLco > 20% predicted
      Upper lobe predominant emphysema

      This patient has pCO2 of 7.4 so she is unsuitable for referral for lung reduction surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      152.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old patient without a known medical history presents to casualty unconscious. What...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient without a known medical history presents to casualty unconscious. What should be done as soon as possible?

      Your Answer: Blood Glucose

      Explanation:

      Blood glucose should be evaluated immediately in order to investigate for diabetic coma triggered by hyperglycaemia or hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Your Answer: Proximal muscle weakness

      Correct Answer: Low grade fever

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient was given Penicillin G pre-operatively. Which of the following procedures was...

    Incorrect

    • A patient was given Penicillin G pre-operatively. Which of the following procedures was he waiting for?

      Your Answer: Dental procedure for patient with an atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Splenectomy

      Explanation:

      Asplenic patients are at a high risk of fulminant sepsis which is usually caused by capsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzas and Neisseria meningitides. So all the patients who are awaiting splenectomy should be given antibiotic prophylaxis. (Penicillin, if allergy to Penicillin, Clarithromycin)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old male presented in the OPD with a complaint of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presented in the OPD with a complaint of abdominal pain and blood in his stools for the last two days. He reports that the stools are black in colour and sometimes accompanied by fresh blood. There is also a history of significant weight loss. Blood tests revealed elevated CA 19-9. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?

      Your Answer: E. coli H0157 food poisoning

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      200.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Correct

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
      Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      69.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old female presented in the emergency department with complaints of increased thirst,...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old female presented in the emergency department with complaints of increased thirst, confusion and drowsiness. When taking her history it was found that she was treated successfully for breast malignancy 2 years ago. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcemia

      Explanation:

      Treated breast malignancy is pointing towards hypercalcemia as it is very common in patients of CA. The symptoms of hypercalcemia are increased thirst, drowsiness and confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with sensory loss?

      Your Answer: Lead poisoning

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Diseases that cause predominantly sensory loss include diabetes, uraemia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis.
      Those that cause predominantly motor loss include Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, and diphtheria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?

      Your Answer: It is not very sensitive

      Correct Answer: Floor and ceiling effects

      Explanation:

      Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      27.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/2) 50%
Geriatric Medicine (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (2/2) 100%
Nervous System (0/1) 0%
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