-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?
Your Answer: Oxycodone
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.
Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?
Your Answer: May over-read at low flows
Correct Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%
Explanation:A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing
It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)
Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas
The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour
The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5–10% accuracy within the range of 4–24 L/min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C.
Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?Your Answer: Temperature of the gas
Correct Answer: Density of the gas
Explanation:Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.
At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.
Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.
Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.
Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Regarding the Valsalva manoeuvre, which of the following describes the cardiovascular changes in phase III in a normal patient?
Your Answer: Raised intrathoracic pressure, increase in blood pressure, and increase in heart rate
Correct Answer: Normal intrathoracic pressure, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in heart rate
Explanation:When a person forcefully expires against a closed glottis, changes occur in intrathoracic pressure that dramatically affect venous return, cardiac output, arterial pressure, and heart rate. This forced expiratory effort is called a Valsalva maneuver.
Initially during a Valsalva, intrathoracic (intrapleural) pressure becomes very positive due to compression of the thoracic organs by the contracting rib cage. This increased external pressure on the heart and thoracic blood vessels compresses the vessels and cardiac chambers by decreasing the transmural pressure across their walls. Venous compression, and the accompanying large increase in right atrial pressure, impedes venous return into the thorax. This reduced venous return, and along with compression of the cardiac chambers, reduces cardiac filling and preload despite a large increase in intrachamber pressures. Reduced filling and preload leads to a fall in cardiac output by the Frank-Starling mechanism. At the same time, compression of the thoracic aorta transiently increases aortic pressure (phase I); however, aortic pressure begins to fall (phase II) after a few seconds because cardiac output falls. Changes in heart rate are reciprocal to the changes in aortic pressure due to the operation of the baroreceptor reflex. During phase I, heart rate decreases because aortic pressure is elevated; during phase II, heart rate increases as the aortic pressure falls.
When the person starts to breathe normally again, the intrathoracic pressure declines to normal levels, the aortic pressure briefly decreases as the external compression on the aorta is removed, and heart rate briefly increases reflexively (phase III). This is followed by an increase in aortic pressure (and reflex decrease in heart rate) as the cardiac output suddenly increases in response to a rapid increase in cardiac filling (phase IV). Aortic pressure also rises above normal because of a baroreceptor, sympathetic-mediated increase in systemic vascular resistance that occurred during the Valsava.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.
Which of the following best explains the situation above?Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis
Explanation:When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.
Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.
Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.
Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.
Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. The 'Pringle manoeuvre is performed to stop the bleeding where the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct are clamped. These structures form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.
Which of the following vessels also contributes to the boundary of this region?Your Answer: Common hepatic artery
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.
The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
collections isolated to the greater or lesser sacRapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a ‘Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?
Your Answer: T3
Explanation:Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).
Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a certain population.
Analysis has revealed that there is a strong positive correlation between height and forced expiratory volume (FEV1).
Which of the following statistical technique can be utilized to predict FEV1 at any given height in this cohort?Your Answer: Forest plot
Correct Answer: Linear regression
Explanation:A forest plot is a graphical representation that summarizes the findings of several research, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.
The Kaplan-Meier estimate shows survival over time, for example, plotting the number of patients still alive seven years after chemotherapy for lung cancer.
Fisher’s exact test similarly uses contingency tables to assess statistical significance, however, it is typically used when sample sizes are small.
Chi-square test assesses whether an association exists between two categorical variables using the observed and expected frequencies. For instance, is social class (I-V) related to body mass index (BMI) category? Using the observed and anticipated frequencies, the Chi-square test determines whether a connection exists between two categorical variables. For example, is socio-economic status related to BMI category?
Linear regression is a technique which attempts to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. Linear regression uses correlation between two continuous variables. As correlation only indicates the strength of an association only, it cannot be used to forecast the change in one variable when a second variable is altered.
This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. In this example, for a range of heights, it would be possible to map a line of best fit to a scatter plot and thus predict the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) for an individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?
Your Answer: High altitude
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.
The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.
The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.
The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).
An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.
Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.
The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.
Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.
What is the most significant reason for this?Your Answer: The apical units are better ventilated
Correct Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units
Explanation:In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).
The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.
In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.
PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.
PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.
The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively.
How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?Your Answer: 100
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (0.04-0.03)
ARR= 0.01
NNT= 1/0.01
NNT=100
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Of the stated laws, which is correct?
Your Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.
Explanation:Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.
Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.
Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.
Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.
Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.
Which of the following types of study could that have been?Your Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4
Explanation:In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.
During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.
Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.
Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?
Your Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.
The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
2. Thoracic constrictions:
i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
The required sample size in a trial of a new therapeutic agent varies with?
Your Answer: Type of patient recruited
Correct Answer: Level of statistical significance required
Explanation:The level of statistical significance required influences the sample size used. This is because sample size is used in the calculation of SD/SE.
Sample size does not affect
The level of acceptance
The alternative hypothesis with a general level set at p<0.05
The test to be used.Experience of the investigator and the type of patient recruited should have no bearing on the required sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?
Your Answer: Maximal response occurs only when all receptor sites are occupied
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.
Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.
Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?
Your Answer: Has a reflex arc which involves a single interneuron
Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6
Explanation:The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.
The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.
Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.
A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:
Your Answer: Class II equipment does need connection to earth
Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts
Explanation:There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:
Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply
Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.
Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.
Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)
Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.
Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.
Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?Your Answer: Posterior aspect of the rectus sheath
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.
The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.
The bucks fascia lies within the penis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region.
On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg.
The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?Your Answer: Bulky, greasy stools
Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions
Explanation:Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.
Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.
Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.
Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.
Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?
Your Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media
Explanation:The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Xenon
Correct Answer: Isoflurane
Explanation:The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).
MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as
Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety of sizes.
When choosing an intravenous or intra-arterial cannula, which of the following measurements is used?Your Answer: French gauge (mm)
Correct Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)
Explanation:Standard wire gauge cannulas for intravenous and intraarterial use are available (SWG or G). The SWG is a former imperial unit (which requires metric conversion). The cross sectional area of wires is becoming more popular as a size measurement.
The number of wires that will fit into a standard hole template is referred to as SWG.
This standard sized hole can accommodate 22 thin wires side by side (each wire the diameter of a 22 gauge cannula)
In the same hole, 14 thicker wires would fit (each wire the diameter of a 14 gauge cannula)While the diameter and thus radius of a parallel sided tube are the most important determinants of fluid flow rate, they are not commonly used to compare cannula sizes.
The circumference of French gauge (FG) catheters (urinary or chest drains) is measured. Sizes of double lumen tracheal tubes are FG. Internal diameter is used to measure single lumen tubes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.
The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?Your Answer: Pressure-volume curve starts at a higher end-expiratory pressure
Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop
Explanation:A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work
In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.
The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.
Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?Your Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.
Which term can be used to describe that?Your Answer: Endemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest pain for two hours. Chest pain was tightness in nature, located in the centre of the chest and radiate into the neck and left arm. The patient otherwise looks fit and well.
Just after admitting the patient, he suffered VF cardiac arrest and is immediately defibrillated with the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
On clinical examination following was the finding:
BP: 82/45 mmHg
Heart rate: 120 beats/min
Oxygen saturation on air: 25%
Heart sounds: Normal
There is no sign of pulmonary oedema. The patient is anxious, cold, and clammy.
A 12 lead ECG was done which revealed a sinus rhythm of 120 with ST-segment depression and T wave inversion in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is considered best for the initial treatment of the patient?Your Answer: Oral aspirin
Explanation:This is a classical case of unstable angina or NSTEMI (Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction). As soon as the diagnosis of unstable angina or NSTEMI is made the initial treatment is Aspirin and antithrombin therapy.
Betablocker is known to reduce mortality from acute myocardial infarction by reducing oxygen demand. If there is no contraindication (heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, severe left ventricular dysfunction, and asthma), a beta-blocker should be given early. This patient has hypotension and therefore metoprolol is contraindicated.
If three doses of nitroglycerine tablets or Nitrolingual sprays and intravenous beta-blockers too cannot relieve the symptoms intravenous Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) should be considered provided that there is no hypotension. But in this case, the patient is hypotensive, and therefore, it is contraindicated.
If the symptoms are not relieved after three serial doses of nitroglycerine or if symptoms recur despite adequate anti-anginal treatment morphine sulphate is indicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?
Your Answer: Oxygen is the first gas to be added to the mixture delivered to the back bar
Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters
Explanation:Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.
Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.
Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.
Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?
Your Answer: Scalenus anterior
Explanation:The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.
There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
1. Anterior scalene
2. Middle scalene
3. Posterior scaleneThe scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)