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  • Question 1 - What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 0.7

      Explanation:

      The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and stiffness in her joints. On examination, she has +1 oedema, slightly swollen metacarpophalangeal joints and ulceration of her buccal mucosa. Her BP is 145/95. Serum creatinine is 92 x 10^12/l. Urinalysis is significant for blood and protein, both +3. High titres of anti-dsDNA are detected in her serum. Which of the following histological changes would be observed in the renal tissue?

      Your Answer: Pauci-immune diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with deposits of IgG, IgM and C3

      Explanation:

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a distinct histologic form of glomerulonephritis common to various types of systemic inflammatory diseases, including autoimmune disorders (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]), vasculitis syndromes (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis), and infectious processes. In DPGN, more than 50% of the glomeruli (diffuse) show an increase in mesangial, epithelial, endothelial (proliferative), and inflammatory cells (i.e., glomerulonephritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      73.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following conditions does not manifest as an autosomal-recessive inheritance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not manifest as an autosomal-recessive inheritance?

      Your Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Correct Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      Most cases of Trisomy 18, also called Edwards syndrome, are not inherited but occur as random events during the formation of eggs and sperm. An error in cell division called nondisjunction results in a reproductive cell with an abnormal number of chromosomes. For example, an egg or sperm cell may gain an extra copy of chromosome 18. If one of these atypical reproductive cells contributes to the genetic makeup of a child, the child will have an extra chromosome 18 in each of the body’s cells.Mosaic trisomy 18 is also not inherited. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in embryonic development. As a result, some of the body’s cells have the usual two copies of chromosome 18, and other cells have three copies of this chromosome.Partial trisomy 18 can be inherited. An unaffected person can carry a rearrangement of genetic material between chromosome 18 and another chromosome. This rearrangement is called a balanced translocation because there is no extra material from chromosome 18. Although they do not have signs of trisomy 18, people who carry this type of balanced translocation are at an increased risk of having children with the condition.Canavan disease is a type of leukodystrophy and a degenerative disorder that causes progressive damage to nerve cells in the brain. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.Cystic Fibrosis is the most common lethal recessive disease of white people, with a carrier frequency of 1:25 and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.Galactosaemic is autosomal recessive and due to mutations in the GALT gene.Phenylketonuria is the most common inborn error of metabolism in the UK with an incidence of 1:10,000 and a carrier rate of 1:50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Correct

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?

      Your Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps

      Explanation:

      Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Correct Answer: Luteinising Hormone

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She seems lethargic and has a blood glucose of 24 mmol/l. Which of the following defines diabetes, according to the World Health Organization?

      Your Answer: Single fasting glucose > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms

      Explanation:

      WHO states that diabetes can be diagnosed from a single fasting glucose of > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms or a glucose level of > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after a glucose load. Two fasting glucose levels of > 7.0 mmol/l on separate occasions can also fit the diagnosis in the absence of characteristic symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 38.5℃ and acute abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 38.5℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. On examination, he’s found to be tachycardic. Abdominal examination reveals guarding. An ultrasound scan shows gall stones in the gall bladder, free fluid in the pelvis and an appendix with a diameter of 8 mm.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is acute appendicitis.Acute appendicitis presents typically with central abdominal pain migrating to the right iliac fossa, anorexia, nausea and fever. The temperature usually does not go beyond 40C. Although appendicitis is a clinical diagnosis, an ultrasound scan showing an appendix width of greater than 6mm is diagnostic.Pyrexia, guarding, and pain are all in keeping with appendicitis.Other options:- Cholecystitis is very rare in children, and although gall stones are present, there is no jaundice or biliary tree dilatation suggested by the scan.- Impacted Gall Stone: There is no mention of common bile duct dilatation in the clinical scenario.- Sickle Cell Crisis: A sickle cell crisis should not cause guarding, or an ultrasound scan finding of a dilated appendix base.- Gastroenteritis: Gastroenteritis would not produce the ultrasound scan findings described above with a thickened appendix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Large for their gestational age (LGA)

      Correct Answer: Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for patients with Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Deep vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome typically have small testes that produce a reduced amount of testosterone (primary testicular insufficiency). Testosterone is the hormone that directs male sexual development before birth and during puberty. Without treatment, the shortage of testosterone can lead to delayed or incomplete puberty, breast enlargement (gynecomastia), decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, and a reduced amount of facial and body hair. As a result of the small testes and decreased hormone production, affected males are not generally infertile but may benefit from assisted reproductive technologies. Some affected individuals also have differences in their genitalia, including undescended testes (cryptorchidism), the opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis (hypospadias), or an unusually small penis (micropenis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A new-born has a reduced red reflex in his left eye. Which of...

    Correct

    • A new-born has a reduced red reflex in his left eye. Which of the following should be the main differential diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital cataract

      Explanation:

      Cataracts in infants are most commonly identified by an abnormal red reflex. Due to the high risk of amblyopia in unilateral cataracts, prompt referral to a paediatric ophthalmologist is indicated. Bilateral cataracts may occur in association with several syndromes or diseases, and these children require evaluation for these systemic disorders.Retinoblastoma is rare, but it is the most common primary intraocular tumour in children. About 80% of cases are diagnosed before age 4, with a median age at diagnosis of 2 years. It most frequently presents due to an abnormal red reflex. It is one of the few life-threatening disorders encountered in paediatric ophthalmology. Intraocular retinoblastoma is very treatable, but the mortality for metastatic disease is high. Identification of tumours before systemic spread is critical. Most children with large unilateral tumours will require enucleation (surgical removal of the eye), but the eye and vision may sometimes be preserved if the tumours are identified when they are small.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Fertility is affected

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level

      Explanation:

      A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero

      Explanation:

      The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he is found to have a prominent carotid pulse but a feeble femoral pulse. He was also found to be hypertensive with blood pressure in his upper limbs found to be 40 mmHg more than that of the lower limbs.Auscultation reveals an ejection-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and the left interscapular area and an audible ejection click at the apex.An ECG reveals features suggestive of mild left ventricular hypertrophy and a chest X-ray reveals mild cardiomegaly with notches on the lower surface of the 3rd, 4th and 5th ribs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the clinical scenario provided is coarctation of the aorta. It contributes to about 4% of all congenital heart disease and is more prominent in males than females.It is associated with trisomy 13 and 18, Turner syndrome, valproate toxicity as well as ventricular septal defects, persistent ductus arteriosus, mitral valve abnormalities and berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis. Other associated cardiac abnormalities include a bicuspid aortic valve (50%), mitral valve disease, aortic regurgitation (20%) and subaortic stenosis. Ninety-eight per cent of coarctations occur at the level of the pulmonary artery after the subclavian artery. It is for this reason that, on observation, the proximal blood pressure varies compared with the distal blood pressure. The blood pressure in the right arm is often higher than that in the left arm. Clinically, these children present with hypertension, prominent carotid pulses, radio-femoral delay, left ventricular hypertrophy and an ejection systolic murmur maximum over the posterior left interscapular area. An apical click over the aortic valve may be heard. Coarctation of the aorta may be simple (post-ductal), or complex (pre-ductal or with a septal defect), and may be associated with aortic stenosis, transposition of the great arteries or a bicuspid aortic valve. The ECG and chest radiograph may be normal. However, as the child enters the first decade, evidence of cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure, post-stenotic dilatation with a dilated subclavian artery and rib notching may be noticed. The ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy in infancy and right axis deviation. Complications of coarctation of the aorta include left ventricular failure, cerebral haemorrhage, aortic dissection, renal vascular stenosis and infective endocarditis. This condition may result in death due to an aortic aneurysm or rupture in the third or fourth decade of life. It may also cause premature ischaemic heart disease as a result of hypertension. If left untreated, 20% of individuals die before 20 years of age and 80% before 50 years of age. Treatment options include surgical balloon dilatation or the grafting of a subclavian flap, and should surgical correction not normalise the blood pressure, further medical management is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who describe...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who describe what seems to be an episode of generalized tonic-clonic seizures, after she came home from an all-night party around 6 am. Her father has epilepsy and one of her cousins sometimes has episodes of blank spells. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

      Explanation:

      In people with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, symptoms can be brought on by: -Sleep deprivation-Psychological stress-Alcohol and drug use-Noncompliance of medication-Flickering lights such as strobe lights -Menses-Time of day – usually mornings

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Xanthomas

      Explanation:

      CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal...

    Incorrect

    • A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal pulses and otherwise normal examination. There are no dysmorphic features on the routine first-day neonatal check. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-and post-ductal saturations

      Explanation:

      Certain CHDs may present with a differential cyanosis, in which the preductal part of the body (upper part of the body) is pinkish but the post ductal part of the body (lower part of the body) is cyanotic, or vice versa (reverse differential cyanosis). The prerequisite for this unique situation is the presence of a right-to-left shunt through the PDA and severe coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption or severe pulmonary hypertension. In patients with severe coarctation of the aorta or interruption of the aortic arch with normally related great arteries, the preductal part of the body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA and LV, whereas the post ductal part is supplied by deoxygenated systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, main pulmonary artery (MPA) and the PDA. In the new-born with structurally normal heart, a differential cyanosis may be associated with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. In the cases of TGA with coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption, the upper body is mostly supplied by systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, and ascending aorta, whereas the lower body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA, LV, MPA, and then the PDA. For accurate detection of differential cyanosis, oxygen saturation should be measured in both preductal (right finger) and post ductal (feet) parts of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 24 - A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal...

    Incorrect

    • A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Don’t give the vaccine

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines such as the MMR, should be avoided in HIV+ patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T cells

      Explanation:

      Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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  • Question 28 - A 13 year old patient presents in the A&E with a fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old patient presents in the A&E with a fracture of his left femur. He was a passenger in a car involved in a traffic accident. Upon clinical examination, his left posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis arteries are not palpable. Which of the following is most probably injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery is the one accompanying the femoral shaft, being the most important blood supplier of the leg. Femoral artery injury during a femur shaft fracture is quite common as a result of blunt trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External angular dermoid

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 30 - A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and crying. A diagnosis of congenital heart disease is suspected by the team of doctors. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Answer: Transposition of the great arteriesTransposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion that presents in neonates. The hallmark of transposition of the great arteries is ventriculoarterial discordance, in which the aorta arises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle.Infants with transposition of the great arteries (TGA) are usually born at term, with cyanosis apparent within hours of birth.The clinical course and manifestations depend on the extent of intercirculatory mixing and the presence of associated anatomic lesions. Note the following:Transposition of the great arteries with intact ventricular septum: Prominent and progressive cyanosis within the first 24 hours of life is the usual finding in infants if no significant mixing at the atrial level is evident.Transposition of the great arteries with large ventricular septal defect: Infants may not initially manifest symptoms of heart disease, although mild cyanosis (particularly when crying) is often noted. Signs of congestive heart failure (tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and failure to gain weight) may become evident over the first 3-6 weeks as pulmonary blood flow increases.Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction: Infants often present with extreme cyanosis at birth, proportional to the degree of left ventricular (pulmonary) outflow tract obstruction. The clinical history may be similar to that of an infant with tetralogy of Fallot.Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary vascular obstructive disease: Progressively advancing pulmonary vascular obstructive disease can prevent this rare subgroup of patients from developing symptoms of congestive heart failure, despite a large ventricular septal defect. Most often, patients present with progressive cyanosis, despite an early successful palliative procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (1/2) 50%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
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