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  • Question 1 - A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the...

    Correct

    • A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Back pain

      Correct Answer: Relieved by food

      Explanation:

      Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease, presented with pain in the thigh and gluteal region, while climbing up the stairs for past 5 months and symptoms were getting worse. He was a heavy smoker. On examination the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses were present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sciatica

      Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      The presence of the pulses excluded Thromboangitis Obliterans. The pain is not suggestive of sciatica. The history doesn’t support a DVT or an embolus as there is no pain at rest, swelling or skin changes. So the most probable diagnosis is atherosclerosis as the chronic diabetes and smoking support it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      2260.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide attempt.

      Lab investigations reveal:
      pH 7.1 (7.36-7.44)
      pO2 15.3 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      pCO2 3.2 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      Standard bicarbonate 2.2 mmol/L (20-28)
      Serum calcium 1.82 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      After replacing calcium, which of the following is the most urgent treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: 8.4% bicarbonate infusion

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide has high affinity for haemoglobin and myoglobin resulting in a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve and tissue hypoxia. There are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning in the UK. In these circumstances, antidotal therapy to block alcohol dehydrogenase with ethanol or 4-MP alone is insufficient to treat the poisoning. Data suggest that a severe lactic acidosis needs initial correction and in this patient the most appropriate treatment would be IV fluids with bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis. Haemodialysis may be required thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old male patient, with a history of late onset asthma and heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male patient, with a history of late onset asthma and heart failure as well as generalized rash, presents with Bell's palsy. CXR shows multiple soft shadows and blood test reveal an eosinophilia. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?

      Your Answer: C ANCA

      Correct Answer: P ANCA

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) is a multisystemic disorder, belonging to the small vessel anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-associated vasculitis. It is defined as an eosinophil-rich and necrotizing granulomatous inflammation often involving the respiratory tract, and necrotizing vasculitis predominantly affecting small to medium-sized vessels, associated with asthma and eosinophilia. ANCA (especially pANCA anti-myeloperoxidase) are present in 40-60% of the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation, blood on the side of stool and extremely painful defecation. Digital rectal examination also results in pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a longitudinal tear of the perianal skin distal to the dentate line, often due to increased anal sphincter tone. Anal fissures are classified according to aetiology (e.g., trauma or underlying disease) or duration of disease (e.g., acute or chronic). They are typically very painful and may present with bright red blood per rectum (haematochezia). Anal fissures are a clinical diagnosis based on history and examination findings. Management is primarily conservative, and includes stool softeners, analgesia, and possible local muscle relaxation; because of the risk of incontinence, surgical intervention is a last resort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain after eating, and diarrhoea. She has lost 7 kg in weight over the last few months. A recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy were normal. Her past medical history includes angina and a right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan.

      right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan.
      Blood tests revealed:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 118 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 12.3 x 109/l
      Platelets 210 x 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 134 mmol/l

      Select the most appropriate further investigations.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is 74 years old. She has had a recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy. She has a history of angina and a right CEA. She is having colicky abdominal pain after meals and weight loss, which points to a possible diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia. Thus, you would want to do a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen to look for this. A 24 hour cardiac monitor would also be helpful to look for any abnormal rhythm that could be a potential aetiology of her disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair.
      Blood results are shown below:
      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1-7)
      Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9-35)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

    Recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

      Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing.

      Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old male was recently diagnosed with hypertension and was prescribed Chlorothiazide. Now...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male was recently diagnosed with hypertension and was prescribed Chlorothiazide. Now he complains of a painful swelling in his left big toe for two days. What is the single most appropriate investigation for reaching the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum uric acid

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide, like all thiazide diuretics, may cause hyperuricemia that can lead to gout and gouty arthritis. A test for serum uric acid will confirm this suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Hepatobiliary System (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
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