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  • Question 1 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer: Incus

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:

      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:

      Stapes,

      Temporal styloid process,

      Stylohyoid ligament, and

      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.

      Muscles:

      Muscles of face

      Occipitofrontalis muscle

      Platysma

      Stylohyoid muscle

      Posterior belly of Digastric

      Stapedius muscle

      Auricular muscles

      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after...

    Correct

    • A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after activity. X-rays reveal an expansible, eccentric, lytic lesion in the metaphysis distally in the affected bone surrounded by new bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Explanation:

      Aneurysmal bone cysts tend to develop in patients younger than 20 years old. They usually occur in the metaphyseal region of long bones, and are cystic lesions composed of numerous blood filled channels that grow slowly. In X-rays, they show up as circumscribed lesions, sometimes surrounded by new bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy...

    Correct

    • An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy is complicated when a tear develops in a large venous structure in the posterior mediastinum that empties into the superior vena cava. Which of the following structures is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is formed by the union of the right subcostal veins and the ascending lumbar veins at the level of the 12th thoracic vertebra. It enters the thorax through the aortic hiatus to ascend in the posterior mediastinum and arching over the right main bronchus posteriorly at the root of the right lung to join the superior vena cava before it pierces the pericardium.

      The basilic vein is a vein on the medial aspect of the arm that ascends to become the axillary vein.

      The cephalic vein is also a vein of the arm.

      The external jugular and brachiocephalic vein are not in the posterior mediastinum.

      The median cubital vein is found in the cubital fossa of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Correct

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:

      Olfactory – Purely sensory

      Optic – Sensory

      Oculomotor – Mainly motor

      Trochlear – Motor

      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor

      Abducens – Mainly motor

      Facial – Both sensory and motor

      Vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory

      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor

      Vagus – Both sensory and motor

      Accessory – Mainly motor

      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Correct

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Correct

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be...

    Correct

    • Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:

      Your Answer: Cerebellar disease

      Explanation:

      The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The annular ligament in the forearm: ...

    Correct

    • The annular ligament in the forearm:

      Your Answer: Encircles the head of the radius

      Explanation:

      The annular ligament forms about four-fifths of the osseofibrous ring and is attached to the anterior and posterior margins of the radial notch. It is a strong band of fibres which encircles the head of the radius retaining it in contact with the radial notch of the ulna. When it comes to its upper border, it blends with the anterior and posterior ligament of the elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Correct

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover...

    Incorrect

    • The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover the lungs. What is the normal amount of pleural fluid?

      Your Answer: 35 ml

      Correct Answer: 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Pleural fluid is a serous fluid produced by the serous membrane covering normal pleurae. Most fluid is produced by the parietal circulation (intercostal arteries) via bulk flow and reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. The total volume of fluid present in the intrapleural space is estimated to be only 2–10 ml. A small amount of protein is present in intrapleural fluid. Normally, the rate of reabsorption increases as a physiological response to accumulating fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 -  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and...

    Correct

    •  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and episodes of haematuria. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a left renal mass and the patient underwent a nephrectomy. Histopathological pattern was triphasic with blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components. The pathologist suggested the tumour resulted from the lack of a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11. Which of the following tumours is the pathologist most likely suggesting?

      Your Answer: Wilms’ tumour

      Explanation:

      Wilms’ tumour is one of the most common malignant tumours of childhood but it can also rarely be found in adults. In biopsy, classical histopathological findings include the triphasic pattern composed by blastemal, epithelial, and stromal elements. First symptoms in children include an abdominal palpable mass, while in adults pain and haematuria are the most common complaints. Deletions of tumours’ suppressor genes on chromosome 11 are usually associated with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:...

    Correct

    • The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to the casualty after he had fallen from the 3rd floor of a building. An examination carried out revealed tenderness on the left mid-posterior axillary line and low blood pressure. Further palpation revealed a large swelling that protruded downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays showed that the 9th and the 10th ribs were fractured near their angles. Considering these results, which abdominal organ was likely injured by the fractured ribs.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen, left kidney, stomach, the splenic flexure of the colon and the suprarenal glands are all in the same quadrant- the left upper quadrant. However, the spleen is the most readily injured organ when there is fracture to the 10th, 11th and the 12th ribs because of its close association with these ribs. This patient exhibits a great indication of a ruptured spleen (tenderness on the left mid and posterior axillary line). The spleen is a thin capsulated organ with a spongy parenchyma, allowing it to bleed profusely in the event of injury. The liver, head of the pancreas and the duodenum are all in the right upper quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Correct

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for surgery to have the hernia repaired. The hernia was discovered to be protruding through the Hesselbach's triangle (inguinal triangle). Which of the following blood vessels that is a branch of the external iliac artery forms the lateral border of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle is formed by the following structures; inguinal ligament at the base; inferior epigastric vessels laterally and the lateral border of the rectus sheath medially. This triangle (also known as Hesselebach’s triangle) is where direct inguinal hernias protrude. The inferior epigastric artery is this the branch of the external iliac artery being referred to. All the other blood vessels are branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is: ...

    Correct

    • The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is:

      Your Answer: Hypoxic hypoxia

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia is when the whole body or a region is deprived of adequate oxygen supply. Different types of hypoxia include the following:

      – Hypoxic hypoxia, which occurs due to poor oxygen supply, as a result of low partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood. This could be due to low partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen (e.g., at high altitude), sleep apnoea, poor ventilation because of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or respiratory arrest, or shunts. The other types of hypoxia have a normal partial pressure of oxygen.

      – Anaemic hypoxia occurs due to low total oxygen content of the blood, with a normal arterial oxygen pressure.

      – Hyperaemic hypoxia occurs due to poor delivery of oxygen to target tissues, such as in carbon monoxide poisoning or methemoglobinemia.

      – Histotoxic hypoxia results due to inability of the cells to use the delivered oxygen due to disabled oxidative phosphorylation enzymes.

      – Ischaemic (or stagnant) hypoxia occurs due to local flow restriction of well-oxygenated blood, seen in cases like cerebral ischaemia, ischaemic heart disease and intrauterine hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?

      Your Answer: H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (9/11) 82%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/3) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (5/6) 83%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Passmed