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  • Question 1 - Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Prolonged PT

      Correct Answer: Prolonged APTT

      Explanation:

      Laboratory results often show that:
      PFA-100 test results are abnormal.
      Low levels of factor VIII (if a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is conducted)
      APTT is Prolonged (or normal)
      PT is normal
      VWF values are low.
      Defective Platelet aggregation
      The platelet count is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 18 year old male presents to the GP with painless asymmetrical cervical...

    Correct

    • A 18 year old male presents to the GP with painless asymmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Histological examination of a biopsied lymph node demonstrates Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis:

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a malignant tumour of the lymphatic system that is characterised histologically by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (multinucleated giant cells). The peak incidence is in young adults aged 20-35, and there is a slight male predominance.

      The following are recognised risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma:
      Male gender
      Age 20-35
      Positive family history
      Epstein-Barr virus infection
      Immunosuppression including HIV infection
      Prolonged use of human growth hormone
      Most patients present with an enlarged, but otherwise asymptomatic lymph node. The most commonly affected lymph nodes are in the supraclavicular and lower cervical areas. Other common clinical features include shortness of breath and chest discomfort secondary to mediastinal mass. Mediastinal masses are sometimes discovered as incidental findings on routine chest X-rays. Approximately 30% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma develop splenomegaly.
      ‘B’ symptoms occur in approximately 25% of patients. The ‘B’ symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma are:
      Fever (>38ºC)
      Night sweats
      Weight loss (>10% over 6 months)
      Pain after alcohol consumption is a pathognomonic sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is, however, not a ‘B’ symptom. It is rare though, only occurring in 2-3% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      The Ann Arbour clinical staging is as follows:
      Stage I: one involved lymph node group
      Stage II two involved lymph node groups on one side of the diaphragm
      Stage III: lymph node groups involved on both sides of the diaphragm
      Stage IV: Involvement of extra-nodal tissues, such as the liver or bone marrow
      Diagnosis is made by lymph node biopsy, which should be taken from a sufficiently large specimen or excisional biopsy, as opposed to a fine needle biopsy. The Reed-Sternberg cell is the most useful diagnostic feature. This is a giant cell with twin mirror-image nuclei and prominent ‘owl’s eye’ nucleoli.
      The Reed-Sternberg cell of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
      Histological typing depends upon the other cells within the diseased tissue. Nodular sclerosing is the most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Lymphocyte-depleted and lymphocyte-predominant are rare subtypes.
      The majority of cases can be successfully treated, and unlike many other malignancies even if the first-line treatment fails, a cure can often be achieved with second-line therapies. Stage 1 Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually treated with radiotherapy alone, but more advanced stages require combination chemotherapy. In localised disease treated with irradiation, there is a 5-year survival rate of greater than 80%. In disseminated disease treated with chemotherapy, the 5-year survival falls to around 50%. Overall, a 5-year survival of >70% should be achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. There is a secondary rise after the age of 40 years. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage and have an equal sex incidence; there is a male predominance for the 15% of T-cell lineage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following clinical features is NOT a typical feature of haemolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is NOT a typical feature of haemolytic anaemias:

      Your Answer: Leg ulcers

      Correct Answer: Angular cheilitis

      Explanation:

      Features include:
      Anaemia
      Jaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)
      Pigment gallstones
      Splenomegaly
      Ankle ulcers
      Expansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia major
      Aplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Some patients may complain alcohol-induced nodal pain and pruritus

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Myeloma is associated with marked rouleaux formation on blood film.

      Explanation:

      98% of cases of myeloma occur over the age of 40 years with a peak incidence between 65 and 70 years. The disease is twice as common in black individuals compared to those of white or Asian origin. Laboratory findings include presence of a paraprotein in serum/urine (the paraprotein is IgG in 60% of cases, IgA in 20% and light chain only in almost all the rest) and marked Rouleaux formation on blood film. There is no cure for myeloma. The overall median survival is now 7-10 years and in younger (less than 50 years) patients it can be over 10 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma:

      Your Answer: Eosinophilia

      Correct Answer: Basophilia

      Explanation:

      Features may include:Normochromic normocytic anaemia is most common; bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease, but if it occurs bone marrow failure may develop with leucoerythroblastic anaemiaOne-third of patients have a neutrophilia; eosinophilia is frequentAdvanced disease is associated with lymphopenia and loss of cell-mediated immunityPlatelet count is normal or increased in early disease and reduced in later stagesESR and CRP are usually raised (ESR is useful in monitoring disease progress)Serum LDH is raised initially in 30-40% of casesDiagnosis is made by histological examination of an excised lymph nodeThe distinctive multinucleate polypoid RS cell is central to the diagnosis of the four classic types of HL (95% of cases)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She says that she has been having frequent episodes of nose bleeds over the past four months, along with increasing fatigue and some weight loss. On examination, she has a diffuse petechial rash and hypertrophy of the gingiva.

      Which one of the following conditions is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      The history of nosebleeds and fatigue, and gingival hyperplasia presents a typical picture of acute myeloid leukaemia. Leukemic infiltrates within the gingiva cause hypertrophy and distinguish this condition from other types of leukaemia. The fatigue is secondary to anaemia, while the nosebleeds are caused by thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemic infiltration of bone marrow. Patients may also report frequent infections secondary to neutropenia and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      292.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding haemophilia A, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding haemophilia A, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: In haemophilia both the APTT and PT are prolonged.

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A is the most common of the hereditary clotting factor deficiencies. The inheritance is sex-linked but up to one-third of patients have no family history and these cases result from recent mutation. The vast majority of cases are inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion, affecting males born to carrier mothers. Females born to affected fathers can also, rarely, be affected due to homozygosity for the gene, where there is marriage to close relatives.

      The defect is an absence or low level of plasma factor VIII. The APTT is prolonged but the PT is normal. Recurrent painful haemarthroses and muscle haematomas dominate the clinical course of severely affected patients and if inadequately treated, lead to progressive joint deformity and disability. Local pressure can cause entrapment neuropathy or ischaemic necrosis. Prolonged bleeding occurs after dental extractions or post-trauma. Spontaneous haematuria and gastrointestinal haemorrhage may occur. The clinical severity of the disease correlates inversely with the factor VIII level. Operative and post-traumatic haemorrhage are life-threatening both in severely and mildly affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding folate requirements, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding folate requirements, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Absorption of folate is primarily from the terminal ileum.

      Correct Answer: Dietary folate is found particularly in leafy green vegetables and liver.

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. When DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cycle cannot progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. This leads to continuing cell growth without division, which presents as macrocytosis, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The defect in red cell DNA synthesis is most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.
      Folate is an essential vitamin found in most foods, especially liver, green vegetables and yeast. The normal daily diet contains 200 – 250 μg, of which about 50% is absorbed. Daily adult requirements are about 100 μg. Absorption of folate is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Stores of folate are normally only adequate for 4 months and so features of deficiency may be apparent after this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      39.1
      Seconds

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Haematology (5/10) 50%
Pathology (5/10) 50%
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