00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      At the moment, he is completely symptom-free. When it comes to this type of overdose, how long does it usually take for symptoms to appear?

      Your Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      >10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem can cause serious toxicity (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules)

      In children, 1-2 tablets of verapamil or diltiazem (immediate or sustained-release)

      Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of ingestion with standard preparations. However, with slow-release preparations, significant toxicity may take 12-16 hours to manifest, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The following are the main clinical features of calcium-channel blocker overdose:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Hypotension
      Bradycardia and first-degree heart block
      Myocardial ischaemia and stroke
      Renal failure
      Pulmonary oedema
      Hyperglycaemia

      The following are some of the most important bedside investigations to conduct:
      Blood glucose
      ECG
      Arterial blood gas
      Other investigations that can be helpful include
      Urea & electrolytes
      Chest X-ray (pulmonary oedema)
      Echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      223
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall...

    Correct

    • You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.

      The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.
      The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:

      1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanide
      Act on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.

      2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
      Act on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.

      3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitol
      Increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.

      4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactone
      Acts in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.

      5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamide
      Inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      422.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed and declares that everything 'looks yellow.' Her potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l, according to a blood test.

      Which of the drugs listed below is most likely to be the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, it can cause toxicity both during long-term therapy and after an overdose. Even when the serum digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range, it can happen.

      Acute digoxin toxicity usually manifests itself within 2-4 hours of an overdose, with serum levels peaking around 6 hours after ingestion and life-threatening cardiovascular complications following 8-12 hours.

      Chronic digoxin toxicity is most common in the elderly or those with impaired renal function, and it is often caused by a coexisting illness. The clinical signs and symptoms usually appear gradually over days to weeks.

      The following are characteristics of digoxin toxicity:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Confusion
      Tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias
      Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision)
      Hyperkalaemia (early sign of significant toxicity)

      Some precipitating factors are as follows:
      Elderly patients
      Renal failure
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Hypokalaemia
      Hypomagnesaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypernatraemia
      Acidosis
      Hypothyroidism
      Spironolactone
      Amiodarone
      Quinidine
      Verapamil
      Diltiazem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      137
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.

      Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?

      Your Answer: Mannitol

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

      When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.

      Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.

      Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      180.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic heart disease and heart failure. You decide to add a loop diuretic to her current drug regime to control the oedema. Which of the following is a contraindication to using a loop diuretic?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Anuria

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:

      • Furosemide
      • Bumetanide
      • Torsemide
      • Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-Cl pump in the ascending loop of Henle, resulting in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      The contra-indications to the use of loop diuretics are:
      1. Anuria
      2. Comatose and precomatose states associated with liver cirrhosis
      3. Renal failure due to nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic drugs
      4. Severe hypokalaemia
      5. Severe hyponatremia
      6. History of hypersensitivity to furosemide, bumetanide, or torsemide (or sulphonamides)

      The following conditions or states are not contraindications, but loop diuretics needs to be used cautiously in these conditions:
      1. Diabetes (but hyperglycaemia less likely than with thiazides)
      2. Gout
      3. Hypotension (correct before initiation of treatment)
      4. Hypovolaemia (Correct before initiation of treatment)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      99.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is administered that resolves the chest pain rapidly.

      Which ONE of the following is released on the initial metabolism of GTN?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide

      Correct Answer: Nitrite ions

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      The nitrate drugs are metabolized in the following steps:
      1. Release Nitrite ions (NO2-), which are then converted to nitric oxide (NO) within cells.
      2. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which causes an increase in the intracellular concentration of cyclic guanosine-monophosphate (cGMP) in vascular smooth muscle cells.
      3. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.

      Although nitrates are potent coronary vasodilators, their principal benefit in the management of angina results from a predominant mechanism of venous dilation:
      – Bigger veins hold more blood
      – Takes blood away from the left ventricle
      – Lowers LVEDV (preload), LA pressure
      – Less pulmonary oedema → improved dyspnoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      116.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A young male has presented to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A young male has presented to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe palpitations, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A 12-lead ECG is recorded, and it shows a narrow complex tachycardia that points to a diagnosis of supraventricular tachycardia.

      Vagal manoeuvres are attempted but are unsuccessful in eliminating the arrhythmia. The next action plan is to use a drug to revert to sinus rhythm.

      Out of the following, which is the first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is an intermittent tachycardia (HR > 100 bpm) and has the following characteristics:
      1. Sudden onset/offset (Contrast with sinus tachycardia)
      2. Electrical activity originates above the ventricle (Contrast with ventricular tachycardia)
      3. Produces narrow QRS complex (<120ms) The most common cause of PSVT is Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT), most common in young women with a mean age onset of 32 years old. There are recurrent episodes of palpitations, and most of the episodes spontaneously. Sometimes, some vagal manoeuvres are required:
      1. Valsalva manoeuvre
      2. immersing the face in ice-cold water
      3. carotid sinus massage.

      If PSVT keeps persisting or is causing severe symptoms, the treatment of choice is intravenous adenosine. The patient’s ECG should be continuously monitored throughout the treatment.

      The recommended doses in adults are as follows:
      – Initial dose of adenosine is 6 mg by rapid IV bolus
      – If unsuccessful, give another dose of adenosine 12 mg by rapid IV bolus
      – If unsuccessful, give a further dose of adenosine 12 mg by rapid IV bolus
      The latest ALS guidelines advocate 18 mg for the third dose, whereas the BNF/NICE guidelines advocate 12 mg.

      If adenosine fails or is contraindicated, intravenous verapamil can be used as an alternative, but it should be avoided in patients recently treated with beta-blockers.

      Synchronized electrical cardioversion will be necessary with signs of hemodynamic instability or if drug treatment has failed to restore sinus rhythm.
      Recurrent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia can be treated by catheter ablation or prevented with drugs such as flecainide, sotalol, diltiazem, or verapamil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The...

    Correct

    • You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Sinus node disease

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

      The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sensitivity to iodine
      Blockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)
      Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)
      Thyroid disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      172.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before initiating treatment with Glyceryl nitrate, you examine the patient and find a murmur. The patient reveals that he has a heart valve disorder, and you immediately put a hold on the GTN order.

      Which of the following valve disorders is an absolute contraindication to the use of GTN?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Nitro-glycerine (NTG) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis), acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, hypertension
      2. Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) – chronic angina pectoris (treatment)
      3. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis)

      The nitrate drugs cause vasodilation via the action of nitric oxide.

      The contraindications to the use of nitrate are the following:
      1. Allergy to nitrates
      2. Concomitant use of phosphodiesterases (PDE) inhibitors such as tadalafil and sildenafil
      3. Right ventricular infarction
      4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      5. Cardiac tamponade
      6. Constrictive pericarditis
      7. Hypotensive conditions
      8. Hypovolaemia
      9. Marked anaemia
      10. Mitral stenosis
      11. Raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral haemorrhage or head trauma
      12. Toxic pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      193.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in...

    Correct

    • You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in the past. Her most recent blood tests show that she has severe renal impairment.

      Which medication adjustments should you make in this patient's case?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated digoxin levels and toxicity.
      The patient’s digoxin dose should be reduced in this case, and their digoxin level and electrolytes should be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      77.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is one of the medications she is taking.

      Which of the following statements about flecainide mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug of class Ic that works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channel in the heart, prolonging the cardiac action potential and slowing cardiac impulse conduction. It has a significant impact on accessory pathway conduction, particularly retrograde conduction, and significantly reduces ventricular ectopic foci.

      Many different arrhythmias can be treated with flecainide, including:
      Pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)
      Acute atrial arrhythmias
      Ventricular arrhythmias
      Chronic neuropathic pain

      The use of flecainide is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Abnormal left ventricular function
      Atrial conduction defects (unless pacing rescue available)
      Bundle branch block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Distal block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Haemodynamically significant valvular heart disease
      Heart failure
      History of myocardial infarction
      Long-standing atrial fibrillation where conversion to sinus rhythm not attempted
      Second-degree or greater AV block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Sinus node dysfunction (unless pacing rescue available)

      Flecainide should only be used in people who don’t have a structural heart problem. The CAST trial found a significant increase in sudden cardiac death and all-cause mortality in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 40% after a myocardial infarction, where it tended to be pro-arrhythmic.

      Anti-arrhythmic drugs have a limited and ineffective role in the treatment of atrial flutter. It’s important to keep in mind that flecainide shouldn’t be used by itself to treat atrial flutter. When used alone, there is a risk of inducing 1:1 atrioventricular conduction, which results in an increase in ventricular rate that is paradoxical. As a result, it should be used in conjunction with a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker with a rate-limiting effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      216.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient....

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient. You consider giving him an atropine shot because he is severely bradycardic.

      Which of the following statements about the use of atropine is correct?

      Your Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      The most common cause of asystole during cardiac arrest is primary myocardial pathology, not excessive vagal tone, and there is no evidence that atropine is helpful in the treatment of asystole or PEA. As a result, it is no longer included in the ALS algorithm’s non-shockable section. Atropine is most commonly used in the peri-arrest period. It is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Heart failure

      Atropine is also used for the following purposes:
      Topically as a cycloplegic and mydriatic to the eyes
      To cut down on secretions (e.g. in anaesthesia)
      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with
      Atropine’s side effects are dose-dependent and include:
      Mouth is parched
      Vomiting and nausea
      Vision is hazy
      Retention of urine
      Tachyarrhythmias
      It can also cause severe confusion and hallucinations in patients, especially the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      561.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate...

    Incorrect

    • You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate an elderly gentleman who had collapsed at home. The team leader requests that you administer an adrenaline shot.

      Which of the following statements about adrenaline is FALSE?

      Your Answer: It has approximately equal activity at both alpha- and beta receptors

      Correct Answer: The IM dose in anaphylaxis is 1 ml of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic amine that binds to alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors and acts as an agonist. It is active at both alpha and beta receptors in roughly equal amounts.

      When taken orally, it becomes inactive. Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intramuscular absorption. In cardiac arrest, it is well absorbed from the tracheal mucosa and can be given through an endotracheal tube.

      At the adrenergic synapse, catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) metabolise it primarily. The inactive products are then passed through the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

      In adult cardiac arrest, the IV dose is 1 mg, which is equal to 10 ml of 1:10000 or 1 ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, the IM dose is 0.5 ml of 1:1000. (500 mcg).

      In open-angle glaucoma, adrenaline causes mydriasis and lowers pressure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the treatment of severe croup, and the emergency management of acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions (as a nebuliser solution).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      385.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American...

    Correct

    • Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American woman. In the emergency room, she is given intramuscular adrenaline, but her symptoms do not improve. Her GP recently started her on a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the most common cause of drug-induced angioedema in the United Kingdom and the United States, owing to their widespread use.

      Angioedema is caused by ACE inhibitors in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of patients, with data indicating a persistent and relatively constant risk year after year. People of African descent have a five-fold higher chance of contracting the disease.

      Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face is the most common symptom, but another symptom is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema. Itching and urticaria are noticeably absent.

      The mechanism appears to be activated complement or other pro-inflammatory cytokines like prostaglandins and histamine, which cause rapid vasodilation and oedema.

      Other medications that are less frequently linked to angioedema include:
      Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs)
      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Bupropion (e.g. Zyban and Wellbutrin)
      Beta-lactam antibiotics
      Statins
      Proton pump inhibitors

      The majority of these reactions are minor and can be treated by stopping the drug and prescribing antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who has...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who has an SVT. You decide to use adenosine after trying several vagal manoeuvres without success.

      The use of adenosine is not contraindicated in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Decompensated heart failure

      Correct Answer: Concurrent use of a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      The use of a beta-blocker at the same time increases the risk of myocardial depression, but it is not a contraindication.
      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      104.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.

      Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially
      The most common side effects are:
      1. Headaches
      2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired
      3. Nausea
      4. Flushing

      The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:
      1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)
      2. Syncope
      3. Prolonged bleeding time
      4. Exfoliative dermatitis
      5. Unstable angina
      6. Rebound hypertension
      7. Thrombocytopenia

      Dry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      115.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is...

    Incorrect

    • During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is given a drug to treat a medical condition. The foetus has developed hypoperfusion and the oligohydramnios sequence as a result of this.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence are all linked to ACE inhibitor use in the second and third trimesters.

      The oligohydramnios sequence refers to a foetus’ or neonate’s atypical physical appearance as a result of oligohydramnios in the uterus. It’s also linked to aortic arch obstructive malformations and patent ductus arteriosus.

      The inhibitory effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system appear to be the cause of these defects. To avoid these risks, ACE inhibitors should be stopped before the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      118.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      257.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer: Adenosine 6 mg IV

      Correct Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The...

    Correct

    • You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The rhythm strip is shown in the diagram below. Defibrillation has already been attempted three times on the patient. You intended to administer amiodarone, but your department has informed you that it is not available. In these circumstances, if amiodarone is not available, which of the following drugs is recommended by the ALS guidelines? Ventricular fibrillation

      Your Answer: Lidocaine

      Explanation:

      If amiodarone is unavailable in VF/pVT arrests, lidocaine at a dose of 1 mg/kg can be used instead, according to the latest ALS guidelines. If amiodarone has already been given, no lidocaine should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      159.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You have been called to review a patient and his management in the...

    Incorrect

    • You have been called to review a patient and his management in the resuscitation room. A very sick patient has been started on mannitol in his treatment protocol.

      Out of the following, what is NOT an FDA-recognized indication for the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      Mannitol has four FDA approved uses clinically:
      1. Reduction of intracranial pressure and brain mass
      2. reduce intraocular pressure if this is not achievable by other means
      3. promote diuresis for acute renal failure to prevent or treat the oliguric phase before irreversible damage
      4. promote diuresis to promote the excretion of toxic substances, materials, and metabolites

      It can be used in rhabdomyolysis-induced renal failure, especially in crush injuries. Mannitol reduces osmotic swelling and oedema in the injured muscle cells and helps restore skeletal muscle function.

      It is a low molecular weight compound and can be freely filtered at the glomerulus and not reabsorbed. This way increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).

      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:

      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      122.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      Which of the following is a verapamil toxicity?

      Your Answer: Negative inotropy

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium-channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      The following summarises the toxicity of calcium-channel blockers:
      Cardiac effects
      Vascular smooth muscle tone affects
      Metabolic effects
      Excessive negative inotropy: myocardial depression
      Negative chronotropy: sinus bradycardia
      Negative dromotropy: atrioventricular node blockade
      Decreased afterload
      Systemic hypotension
      Coronary vasodilation
      Hypoinsulinaemia
      Calcium channel blocker-induced insulin resistance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      286.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III.

      Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      155.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man...

    Correct

    • Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man develops hypothyroidism.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      116.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the...

    Correct

    • After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the department with severe diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and takes an ACE inhibitor to treat it.

      Which of the following statements about angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is correct?

      Your Answer: They have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors prevent angiotensin I from being converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II has a variety of effects:
      Sympathetic activity has increased.
      Vasoconstriction in the arteries
      Secretion of Vasopressin
      Secretion of aldosterone

      The increase in systemic blood pressure is caused by arteriolar vasoconstriction. Vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys as well as the thirst sensation. In the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium and water from the urine in exchange for potassium secretion. As a result, ACE inhibitors lower systemic blood pressure while also causing hyperkalaemia.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used in a variety of clinical settings, including heart failure. According to a meta-analysis, ACE inhibitors reduce death, MI, and overall admission in patients with heart failure by 28%.
      ACE inhibitors are also used in the following clinical settings:
      Hypertension
      Chronic kidney disease
      Diabetic nephropathy 
      Following a myocardial infarction

      In the presence of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they can cause or exacerbate renal failure.
      The most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough caused by increased bradykinin production. There is, however, no known link to fibrosis of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The...

    Correct

    • One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dobutamine infusion should be started.

      Which of the following receptors does dobutamine primarily affect?

      Your Answer: Beta-1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      A summary of the mechanism and effects of different inotropic agents is shown below:
      Inotrope
      Mechanism
      Effects
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Mainly alpha-agonist;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses
      Vasoconstriction;
      Some increased cardiac output
      Dopamine
      Dopamine agonist at low doses;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Dobutamine
      Mainly beta-1 agonist
      Increased cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      92.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as...

    Correct

    • You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as part of his treatment protocol.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding mannitol is true?

      Your Answer: It is irritant to veins and causes phlebitis

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound and is therefore freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. It, therefore, increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).
      Mannitol is primarily used to reduce the pressure and volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It decreases the volume of CSF by:
      Decreasing the rate of CSF formation,and;
      Withdrawing extracellular fluid from the brain across the BBB
      Other uses of mannitol include:
      Short-term management of glaucoma
      Treatment of rhabdomyolysis
      Preserve renal function in peri-operative jaundiced patients
      To initiate diuresis in transplanted kidneys
      Bowel preparation prior to colorectal procedures
      The recommended dose of mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema is 0.25-2g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.
      Circulatory overload and rebound increases in intracranial pressure may occur following the use of mannitol. It is irritant to tissues and veins and can cause inflammation and phlebitis.
      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:
      Anuria
      Intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      Severe cardiac failure
      Severe dehydration
      Severe pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      78.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer: It commonly causes optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.

      The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:

      Arrhythmias
      Corneal microdeposits
      Hepatic disorders
      Hyperthyroidism
      Hypothyroidism
      Hepatic disorders and jaundice
      Nausea
      Peripheral neuropathy
      Respiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)
      Sleep disturbance
      Skin reactions
      QT prolongation

      Amiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.

      Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      311.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A...

    Incorrect

    • The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A CT head scan is performed, and the diagnosis of an ischaemic stroke is confirmed. Her blood pressure is currently very high, with the most recent measurement being 196/124 mmHg, according to the nurse in charge. While you wait for the stroke team to review her, she asks you to prescribe something to help lower the patient's blood pressure.

      Which of the following is the best drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Sodium nitroprusside

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the setting of a stroke syndrome (i.e., in the presence of focal neurological deficits), hypertensive emergencies usually necessitate a slower and more controlled blood pressure reduction than in other situations. Rapid reduction of MAP in the presence of an ischaemic stroke can compromise blood flow, leading to further ischaemia and worsening of the neurological deficit. In this situation, intravenous labetalol is the drug of choice for lowering blood pressure.

      Significantly elevated blood pressure (>185/110 mmHg) is a contraindication to thrombolysis, but there is some evidence for controlling blood pressure before thrombolysis in exceptional circumstances, when it is only slightly above this threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      78.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta...

    Correct

    • As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta blocker. He starts having nightmares and has trouble sleeping soon after starting the beta-blocker.

      Which of the beta blockers listed below is the most likely to be in his system?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The beta-adrenoceptors in the heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, and liver are blocked by beta-adrenoceptor blocking drugs (beta blockers).

      Beta blockers come in a wide range of strengths, with the choice largely determined by the disease being treated and the patient’s unique circumstances. The intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, lipid solubility, duration of action, and cardioselectivity of beta blockers all differ.

      Some beta blockers are lipid (lipophilic) soluble, while others are water soluble (hydrophilic). Drugs that are more lipid-soluble are absorbed faster from the gut, undergo more first-pass metabolism, and are eliminated faster. They’re also more likely to get into the brain and cause central effects like insomnia and nightmares. Propranolol, pindolol, labetalol, and metoprolol are examples of lipid-soluble beta blockers. Beta blockers that are water-soluble are less likely to enter the brain and are more resistant to first-pass metabolism. They are excreted by the kidneys, and in renal impairment, dosage reduction is frequently required. Atenolol, nadolol, celiprolol, and sotalol are examples of water-soluble beta blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      64.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (19/30) 63%
Pharmacology (19/30) 63%
Passmed