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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents with a three month history of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss. She has tried excluding gluten from her diet for the past 4 weeks and feels much better. She requests to be tested so that a diagnosis of coeliac disease can be confirmed. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Check anti-endomysial antibodies

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      The patient likely has celiac’s disease, but if she has been avoiding gluten, a biopsy may be negative. Even though a biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis, she will need to re-introduce gluten into her diet prior to undergoing the biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      77.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old, heavily alcohol dependent man came to the hospital with bleeding gums...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old, heavily alcohol dependent man came to the hospital with bleeding gums and petechiae upon examination. Which of the following is the likely vitamin deficiency?

      Your Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Vitamin deficiencies can happen in alcoholics due to malabsorption. Vitamin C deficiency or scurvy can result in bleeding gums and early symptoms including body weakness and lethargy. Other vitamin deficiencies can cause the following:
      B1 or thiamine – Wernicke’s encephalopathy
      B12 or cyanocobalamin – spinal cord degeneration
      Vitamin K – anticoagulant effects
      Vitamin E – neuropathies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A urine culture of a 50-year-old patient with urosepsis has isolated a multi-drug...

    Correct

    • A urine culture of a 50-year-old patient with urosepsis has isolated a multi-drug resistant Escherichia coli. What is the most likely reason for the multidrug resistance?

      Your Answer: Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production

      Explanation:

      Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL) are enzymes that confer resistance to most beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins, cephalosporins, and the monobactam aztreonam. Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production is the main reason for multi-drug resistance among E.coli. Commonly used medications to treat ESBL-involved infections include carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem, and doripenem), cephamycins (cefoxitin and cefotetan), Fosfomycin, nitrofurantoin, beta-lactamase inhibitors (clavulanic acid, tazobactam, or sulbactam), non-beta-lactamases and colistin (if all other medications have failed.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      64.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old male has been found unconscious by a stranger in an alleyway....

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old male has been found unconscious by a stranger in an alleyway. His RR is 6 bpm and his HR is 60 bpm. His pupils are also constricted. From the list of options, what is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      The respiratory depression and miosis in this patient indicate opiate poisoning. For this, the best treatment is naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - With respect to liver cirrhosis, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to liver cirrhosis, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: In end-stage cirrhosis, liver transplantation is associated with 20% five year survival

      Correct Answer: The final common pathway of hepatic fibrosis is mediated by the hepatic stellate cell

      Explanation:

      The development of hepatic fibrosis reflects an alteration in the normally balanced processes of extracellular matrix production and degradation. [6] The extracellular matrix, the normal scaffolding for hepatocytes, is composed of collagens (especially types I, III, and V), glycoproteins, and proteoglycans. Increased collagen in the space of Disse (space b/w sinusoids and hepatocytes) leads to capillarization of sinusoids, and stellate cells also have contractile properties when activated. This is fibrosis processes. This can lead to the development of portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
      The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-? inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      444.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed. When assessing his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which one of the following variables is not required by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?

      Your Answer: Ethnicity

      Correct Answer: Serum urea

      Explanation:

      A formula for estimating glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is the Modification Diet of Renal Disease (MDRD) equation which takes into account the following variables: serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. Thus, serum urea is not required in this formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old female presented with fever, jaundice, and pain in the middle and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presented with fever, jaundice, and pain in the middle and upper abdomen. Her stools are clay-coloured. Which of the following should be done now?

      Your Answer: USG Abdomen

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography (ERCP)

      Explanation:

      ERCP is necessary to look for any obstruction or compression of the extra-hepatic bile duct. The clay-coloured stools are a result of impaired bilirubin movement into the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor for a review. His symptoms are currently well controlled; he is taking Ramipril 10mg, Spironolactone 25mg, Bisoprolol 10mg, and Furosemide 40mg. His main complaint is of painful gynaecomastia that he says has developed over the past 6 months. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 125/80 mmHg and no residual signs of cardiac failure. Renal function is unchanged from 6 months earlier, with stable creatinine at 125 µmol/l.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Change the spironolactone to eplerenone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that is well-known to cause gynaecomastia because it increases testosterone clearance and oestradiol production. The patient’s primary complaint of gynaecomastia should immediately prompt discontinuation of spironolactone and replacement with Eplerenone, which lacks the antiandrogenic effects, and thus there is less risk of gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He complained of finding it particularly difficult in cold weather. He remembered his father having similar problems. Upon examination, he had a bilateral ptosis with weakness of the facial muscles. He also had difficulty opening his eyes quickly. Limb examination revealed distal weakness in both hands with difficulty opening and closing both hands quickly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Myotonic dystrophy is the most likely diagnosis here.
      It is a multisystem disorder causing cognitive impairment, cataracts, cardiac problems and testicular atrophy, as well as affecting the muscles. Patients have muscle weakness, normally worse distally, and/or myotonia (which is worse in cold weather).
      On examination, patients may also have frontal balding, a myopathic facies, bilateral ptosis, an ophthalmoplegia and wasting of facial muscles and other limb muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is associated with diabetes mellitus and pituitary dysfunction.
      Diagnosis is normally based on clinical features with a characteristic electromyogram (EMG) of myotonic discharges. Creatine kinase is generally normal and muscle biopsy is non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      75.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary System (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal System (1/1) 100%
Renal System (1/2) 50%
Nervous System (1/1) 100%
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