-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which bleeds easily on contact and has changed in appearance over the last 11 months.
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Malignant melanoma
Explanation:Melanoma is more common in men than women. Reasons for the disease includes: UV light and genetic predisposition or mutations. Diagnosis is by biopsy and analysis of any skin lesion that has signs of being potentially cancerous.
Early warning signs of melanoma ABCDE:
Asymmetry
Borders (irregular with edges and corners)
Colour (variegated)
Diameter (greater than 6 mm)
Evolving over time -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 35-year-old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over the dorsum of his hand, after serving in a hilly area of Columbia for 2 months. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Leishmaniasis
Explanation:The chief presentation in Leishmaniasis is a non healing, ulcerated, painless and non pruritic plaque, which does not respond to oral antibiotics. It can be classified into cutaneous and visceral forms and is caused by the sand fly. It is more prevalent in the hilly areas. Fusobacterium causes a tropical ulcer which is painful and shallow, while Troanasomiasis causes sleeping sickness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A girl suffered full thickness circumferential burn to her right arm. What is best step in management?
Your Answer: Escharotomy
Explanation:An escharotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat full-thickness (third-degree) circumferential burns. In full-thickness burns, both the epidermis and the dermis are destroyed along with sensory nerves in the dermis. The tough leathery tissue remaining after a full-thickness burn has been termed eschar.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?
Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which of the following statements best suits scabies?
Your Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen
Explanation:Scabies is an infection caused by a microscopic mite known as Sarcoptes scabies. The chief presenting complaint is itching especially in skin folds and mostly during night. It spreads from one person to another through skin contact, and therefore it is more prevalent in crowded areas like hospitals, hostels and even at homes where people live in close contact with each other. Treatment options include benzyl benzoate, ivermectin, sulphur and permethrin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.
Your Answer: Lymphedema
Explanation:Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?
Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells
Explanation:Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40-45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80-90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 21-year-old patient presents with multiple itchy wheals on his skin. The wheals are of all sizes and they are exacerbated by scratching. The symptoms started after a viral infection and can last up to an hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urticaria
Explanation:Urticaria is a group of disorders that share a distinct skin reaction pattern, namely the occurrence of itchy wheals anywhere on the skin. Wheals are short-lived elevated erythematous lesions ranging from a few millimetres to several centimetres in diameter and can become confluent. The itching can be prickling or burning and is usually worse in the evening or night time. Triggering of urticaria by infections has been discussed for many years but the exact role and pathogenesis of mast cell activation by infectious processes is unclear.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 35-year-old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the palmar aspect of her hands and interdigital spaces. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Tinea manum
Explanation:Tinea manum is a superficial fungal infection of the hands characterised by dry scaly rash and also involves the interdigital spaces of the hands. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of feet, whereas onychomycosis represents a fungal infection of the nails, characterised by nail dystrophy, hyperkeratosis. Kerion is the name given to secondarily infected tinea capitis leading to a soft boggy swelling over the scalp. Psoriasis presents as silvery scales over the extensors of the body and it may involve the nails, scalp and joints.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?
Your Answer: Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum
Explanation:Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?
Your Answer: Surface ulceration
Correct Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm
Explanation:Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?
Your Answer: HLA-B27
Correct Answer: HLA-DR3
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:The following are conditions commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum:
Inflammatory bowel disease:
– Ulcerative colitis
– Crohn’s disease
Arthritides:
– Rheumatoid arthritis
– Seronegative arthritis
Haematological disease:
– Myelocytic leukaemia[8]
– Hairy cell leukaemia
– Myelofibrosis
– Myeloid metaplasia
– Monoclonal gammopathy
Autoinflammatory disease:
– Pyogenic sterile arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and acne syndrome (PAPA syndrome)
– Granulomatosis with polyangiitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?
Your Answer: Topical metronidazole
Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids
Explanation:Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?
Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Eczema
Explanation:The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
Which of the following nail changes are present in ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Clubbing
Explanation:Clubbing of the fingers can be present in many clinical conditions like CLD, bronchiectasis, lung abscess, Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease. Koilonychia or spoon shaped nails are a typical finding in iron deficiency anaemia. Splinter haemorrhages are pin point haemorrhages found in infective endocarditis and secondary to trauma. Yellow nails are present in pulmonary and renal diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she had previously applied cream to the body of a patient with similar symptoms. What is the mechanism that produces her itch?
Your Answer: Allergic reaction
Explanation:Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it. The entry of allergen into the epidermis or dermis causes a localized allergic reaction. Local mast-cell activation in the skin leads immediately to a local increase in vascular permeability, which causes extravasation of fluid and swelling. Histamine released by mast cells activated by allergen in the skin causes large, itchy, red swellings of the skin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 4-year-old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?
Your Answer: Coxsackie
Explanation:This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non healing lesion over the right ear. It is about 1cm in size and bleeds when palpated. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma like other skin cancers mostly arise on photo exposed sites. A patient usually presents with a history of a non healing lesion or wound. Confirmatory diagnosis requires a skin biopsy and histopathological screening. It is rarely metastatic and treatment of choice is surgical excision.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?
Your Answer: Herpes labialis
Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria
Explanation:Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
– Psoriasis
– Atopic eczema
– Erythema multiforme
– Seborrheic dermatitis
– Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
– Mycosis fungoides
– Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome
– Porphyria cutanea tarda
Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
– Systemic lupus erythematosus
– Sjögren’s syndrome
– Sinear Usher syndrome
– Rosacea
– Dermatomyositis
– Darier’s disease
– Kindler-Weary syndrome
Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Which is NOT true of vitiligo?
Your Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor
Explanation:The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?
Your Answer: Porphyria
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia
Explanation:Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
– Idiopathic
– Trauma, excessive manicuring
– Infection: especially fungal
– Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
– Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
– Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
– Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
– Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?
Your Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics
Explanation:Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except:
Your Answer: Cardiomegaly
Explanation:Yellow nail syndrome is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to under development of the lymphatic vessels) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing and it usually affects adults.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm.
Which of the following features do not suggest malignant change?Your Answer: Decrease in size
Explanation:Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.
They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.
They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?
Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency
Explanation:Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
An 18-year-old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?
Your Answer: Favus
Explanation:Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
