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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male, who was otherwise completely healthy, has developed severe and sudden pain in his lower back. It started after getting up from his bed. What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Spondylosis
Correct Answer: PID
Explanation:Sudden onset of severe lower back pain whilst is felt more when bending (such as getting up from a bed) is consistent with a diagnosis of a prolapsed intervertebral disc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for the past four years visits the office for a review. She has been using Beclomethasone dipropionate inhaler 200mcg bd along with Salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and her asthma is still uncontrolled. Her chest examination is clear and she has good inhaler technique. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of her asthma?
Your Answer: Switch steroid to fluticasone propionate
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:The NICE 2017 guidelines state that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Inhaled corticosteroid e.g. Beclomethasone), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) should be added.
If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.This recommendation is also stated in NICE 2019 guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Your Answer: Mixed cellularity
Correct Answer: Nodular sclerosing
Explanation:The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:
1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis
2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis
4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A teenage girl presented in the OPD with a history of amenorrhea. She said she was exercising daily and needs to lose weight. On examination, she is 162 cm in height and 45 kgs in weight. Which of the following is the most probable cause in this case?
Your Answer: LH and FSH levels will be at least twice the normal limit
Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia and hypocalcaemia are possibly present
Explanation:This scenario represents anorexia nervosa disorder, a psychological disorder. Extreme weight loss with a strict diet can lead to deficiency of many nutrients like magnesium and calcium. This can also cause amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old school teacher is found to have abnormal liver function tests at a health screening. Other than tiredness and occasional gritty eyes that she attributes to age, she is well. She is postmenopausal and takes hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but no other medication. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day but takes no alcohol. There is nothing to find on examination.
Some of her blood results are shown below:
Albumin 40 g/l (37-49)
Alanine aminotransferase(ALT) 14 U/l (5-35)
Alkaline Phosphatase 300 U/l (45-105)
AMA positive >1:40
Anti-dsDNA weakly positive
Bilirubin 12 μmol/l (1-22)
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l (>1.55)
Liver-kidney microsomal antibody (anti-LKM) negative
Liver transaminase (AST) 10 U/l (1-31)
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l (<3.36)
Plasma thromboplastin (PT) 12 s (11.5-15.5)
Smooth muscle antibody (SMA) negative
Which of the following would be an appropriate next step?Your Answer: Azathioprine
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:The patient is AMA+ and weakly + for anti-dsDNA, suggesting an autoimmune process. She also has gritty eyes, which makes you think Sjogren’s syndrome. She has an elevated ALP and normal AST/ ALT. All of these factors, in addition to her middle age and the fact that she is a woman, make the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) most likely. It is associated with conditions (autoimmune) such as Sjogren’s syndrome. The treatment for this disease initially is ursodeoxycholic acid. Liver transplantation is the definitive treatment for end-stage disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
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Question 6
Correct
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A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has long standing chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease.
Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?Your Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased
Explanation:The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Correct
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Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?
Your Answer: A coronavirus
Explanation:Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 60-year-old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?
Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known cause of occupational asthma?
Your Answer: Flour
Correct Answer: Cadmium
Explanation:Occupational asthma (OA) could be divided into a nonimmunological, irritant-induced asthma and an immunological, allergy-induced asthma. In addition, allergy-induced asthma can be caused by two different groups of agents: high molecular weight proteins (>5,000 Da) or low molecular weight agents (<5,000 Da), generally chemicals like the isocyanates.
Isocyanates are very reactive chemicals characterized by one or more isocyanate groups (-N=C=O). The main reactions of this chemical group are addition reactions with ethanol, resulting in urethanes, with amines (resulting in urea derivates) and with water. Here, the product is carbamic acid which is not stable and reacts further to amines, releasing free carbon dioxide.Diisocyanates and polyisocyanates are, together with the largely nontoxic polyol group, the basic building blocks of the polyurethane (PU) chemical industry, where they are used solely or in combination with solvents or additives in the production of adhesives, foams, elastomers, paintings, coatings and other materials.
The complex salts of platinum are one of the most potent respiratory sensitising agents having caused occupational asthma in more than 50% of exposed workers. Substitution of ammonium hexachlor platinate with platinum tetra amine dichloride in the manufacture of catalyst has controlled the problem in the catalyst industry. Ammonium hexachlorplatinate exposure still occurs in the refining process.
Rosin based solder flux fume is produced when soldering. This fume is a top cause of occupational asthma.
Bakeries, flour mills and kitchens where flour dust and additives in the flour are a common cause of occupational asthma.
Cadmium was not found to cause occupational asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with history of poorly controlled hypertension was admitted with shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea for three months. He was diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure and was started on digoxin 62.5 μg daily, furosemide 80 mg daily and amiloride 10 mg daily. On admission his lab results showed that his serum urea was 6 mmol/L and serum creatinine was 115 μmol/L. One month later he came for a follow up consultation. On examination he had bilateral ankle oedema. His blood pressure was 138/90 mmHg and pulse rate was 92 bpm. His JVP was not elevated. His apex beat was displaced laterally and he had a few bibasal crepitations on auscultation. There were no cardiac murmurs. His investigation results revealed the following:
Serum sodium 143 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 140 μmol/L (60-110)
Serum digoxin 0.7 ng/mL (1.0-2.0)
CXR showed cardiomegaly and a calcified aorta. ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Increase furosemide to 80 mg twice daily
Correct Answer: Add an ACE inhibitor to the current regimen
Explanation:From the given history the patient has NYHA grade III heart failure. He can be safely started on an ACE inhibitor as his serum potassium was towards the lower limit. As there an impairment of renal function, his urea, creatinine and serum electrolytes should be closely monitored after commencing an ACE inhibitor. Adding atenolol will not have any clinical benefit. Increasing the digoxin dose is not needed as the patient is in sinus rhythm. Increasing furosemide will only have symptomatic relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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