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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?

      Your Answer: Desensitises serotonin 1A receptors and beta adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a true statement about the Brief Psychosis Rating Scale (BPRS)? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the Brief Psychosis Rating Scale (BPRS)?

      Your Answer: It can be used for patients who are unable to read of write

      Explanation:

      Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale: An Instrument for Evaluating Psychopathology in Psychiatric Patients

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is a widely used tool for assessing psychopathology in psychiatric patients. It was developed in the 1960s by Overall and Gorham, using factor analysis, to evaluate the severity of schizophrenic states and provide clinicians with a quick way to assess patient change. Initially, the BPRS consisted of 16 items, but two more items were added to create the standard 18-item version. Later, an expanded 24-item version was introduced to measure additional aspects of schizophrenia, such as bizarre behavior, self-neglect, suicidality, elevated mood, motor hyperactivity, and distractibility.

      The BPRS is rated by a clinician, who assesses each item on a 7-point scale of severity. Higher scores indicate greater severity of symptoms. The assessment relies on a combination of self-report and observation. Several variables are rated based on observation, while the rest are assessed through a short interview. The total score severity, using the 18-item version, has been estimated as mildly ill (31), moderately ill (41), and markedly ill (53). The administration of the BPRS can take 10-40 minutes, and versions have been validated for use in both children and older adults. As it is clinician-administered, the BPRS does not require patients to be able to read of write.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During which phase does the acquisition of the concept of conservation of length...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase does the acquisition of the concept of conservation of length typically occur?

      Your Answer: Formal operational

      Correct Answer: Concrete operational

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?...

    Incorrect

    • The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer: Arachnoid mater

      Correct Answer: Tela choroidea

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer: Purkinje

      Correct Answer: A delta and C pain fibers

      Explanation:

      A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which assessment tools can individuals rate themselves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which assessment tools can individuals rate themselves?

      Your Answer: MADRS (Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale)

      Correct Answer: EPDS (Edinburgh postnatal major depression scale)

      Explanation:

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which symptom is most commonly associated with occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery?...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is most commonly associated with occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted to the hospital for treatment of severe depression. The nursing staff reports that he is experiencing tachycardia, hypertension, and has a fever of 38°C. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is confused and exhibiting myoclonus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and presents with a variety of symptoms affecting cognitive, autonomic, and somatic functions. It can be mistaken for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), but the presence of myoclonus can help differentiate between the two conditions. Treatment involves discontinuing medications and, in severe cases, using a serotonin antagonist. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage agitation. Akathisia is a type of movement disorder, while hyperthermia can occur in both serotonin syndrome and NMS. Encephalopathy refers to a general dysfunction of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to...

    Correct

    • A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to alcohol misuse. They decide to use the health belief model as a framework for their research. One of the constructs of the health belief model pertains to the severity of the illness and its outcomes. How can this construct be applied to the study of alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer: Perceived severity

      Explanation:

      The health belief model is a social cognition model that aims to predict and understand health-related behaviors. It consists of four main constructs: perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, and perceived barriers. Perceived severity refers to an individual’s understanding of the seriousness of a disease. Perceived susceptibility, also known as perceived vulnerability, refers to an individual’s perception of their risk of contracting the disease if they continue with their current behavior. Perceived benefits refer to an individual’s perception of the advantages of adopting a different course of action, including the extent to which it reduces the risk of the disease of its severity. Perceived barriers refer to an individual’s perception of the disadvantages of adopting the recommended action, as well as any obstacles that may hinder its successful implementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?

      Your Answer: Fluphenazine

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG

      The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old teacher has been referred by the doctor with persistent feelings of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old teacher has been referred by the doctor with persistent feelings of sadness. She now describes experiencing a sense of disconnection and feels like she is watching herself in a surreal state. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depersonalisation

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation is classified as a neurotic disorder in the ICD-10 and is characterized by feelings of detachment of distance from one’s own experiences and emotions. Derealisation, on the other hand, is a perceptual phenomenon in which the external world seems unreal. Dissociative fugue is a dissociative state that can lead to wandering and getting lost in another location. Hypochondriasis is a condition in which an individual excessively worries about having a serious illness, despite no evidence of a medical condition. Finally, somatisation is a chronic condition in which multiple physical complaints are present across various systems, but no physical cause can be identified, leading to frequent medical visits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which variable has a zero value that is not arbitrary? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which variable has a zero value that is not arbitrary?

      Your Answer: Ordinal

      Correct Answer: Ratio

      Explanation:

      The key characteristic that sets ratio variables apart from interval variables is the presence of a meaningful zero point. On a ratio scale, this zero point signifies the absence of the measured attribute, while on an interval scale, the zero point is simply a point on the scale with no inherent significance.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4042.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in...

    Incorrect

    • A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in which cranial nerve?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Lesions of the vagus nerve commonly result in the following symptoms: a raspy of weak voice, difficulty swallowing, absence of the gag reflex, deviation of the uvula away from the affected side, and an inability to elevate the palate.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which messenger...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which messenger RNA (mRNA) is synthesized?

      Your Answer: Transcription

      Explanation:

      Transcription is the process of converting DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA) and takes place in the nucleus of a cell. RNA is similar to DNA, but with a ribose sugar backbone instead of deoxyribose, and uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

      After transcription, the mRNA is transported out of the nucleus and undergoes translation in the cytoplasm to form a protein. Ribosomes bind to the mRNA, and transfer RNA (tRNA) reads the genetic code to create the protein.

      Recombination is the process of DNA detaching from one chromosome and attaching to another, resulting in new variations of chromosomes. In eukaryotes, this typically occurs during meiosis between homologous chromosome pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in the DSM-5?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Multiple personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing torsade de pointes?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      In December 2011, the MHRA (Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency) issued guidance regarding citalopram and escitalopram. These medications have been found to cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation, and sudden death. Therefore, they should not be used in individuals with congenital long QT syndrome, pre-existing QT interval prolongation, of in combination with other medications that prolong the QT interval. Patients with cardiac disease should have ECG measurements taken, and any electrolyte imbalances should be corrected before starting treatment. Additionally, new restrictions on the maximum daily doses of citalopram have been put in place: 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients over 65 years old, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding the innervation of cerebral blood vessels, which of the following triggers a...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the innervation of cerebral blood vessels, which of the following triggers a vasoconstrictor effect?

      Your Answer: VIP

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide-Y

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a potent vasodilator, VIP or vasoactive intestinal peptide has vasodilator properties in the intestines. PHM 27 is a potent calcitonin receptor agonist; endogenous analogue of human VIP. CGRP or Calcitonin Gene-Related Peptide is a vasodilator which is found to play an important role in migraines. Neuropeptide Y is a strong vasoconstrictor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old male reports experiencing memory impairment and increased impulsivity. Which neuropsychological assessment...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male reports experiencing memory impairment and increased impulsivity. Which neuropsychological assessment would be useful in evaluating potential frontal lobe dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Mini-mental state examination

      Correct Answer: Luria's three step test

      Explanation:

      Assessment Tools:

      Luria’s Test:
      Luria’s test is a motor task designed by Alexander Luria, a Russian neuropsychologist. The test was developed based on his observation that individuals with significant frontal lobe damage were unable to modify their responses to a programmed motor task when the order of actions in the task was changed.

      Geriatric Depression Scale:
      The Geriatric Depression Scale is a screening tool used to identify depression in older adults. It is not designed to assess cognitive impairment.

      Mini-Mental State Examination:
      The Mini-Mental State Examination is a brief, 30-question screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment. It does not evaluate frontal lobe functions.

      National Adult Reading Test:
      The National Adult Reading Test is used to assess the premorbid level of intelligence in English-speaking patients.

      Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale:
      The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale is a comprehensive assessment tool used to measure intelligence in adults and older adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?

      Your Answer: Glutamate

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      393045.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In anterograde transport, dynein proteins transmit polypeptides/proteins in which format? ...

    Incorrect

    • In anterograde transport, dynein proteins transmit polypeptides/proteins in which format?

      Your Answer: From axons terminals to cell body (retrograde)

      Correct Answer: In both of the above pathways

      Explanation:

      The majority of axonal proteins are synthesised in the cell body and transported along the axons. Microtubules run along the length of the axon and provide tracks for transportation. Kinesin and Dynein are motor proteins that transport proteins and other organelles. Kinesin moves forward or anterograde transport from cell body to axon, whereas Dynein moves retrograde from axon to cell body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The patient's complaint of being unable to identify objects in their hand without...

    Incorrect

    • The patient's complaint of being unable to identify objects in their hand without visual confirmation is an instance of what?

      Your Answer: Phonagnosia

      Correct Answer: Astereognosia

      Explanation:

      Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female with bipolar affective disorder fails to follow her doctor's advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with bipolar affective disorder fails to follow her doctor's advice and uses her mothers antidepressant to manage her chronic headaches. What is the term used to describe this type of medication non-compliance?

      Your Answer: Errors in the timing of sequence of drugs

      Correct Answer: Errors of purpose

      Explanation:

      Schwartz et al. identified five types of errors in drug adherence. These include errors of omission, errors of purpose, errors of dosage, errors of timing and sequence, and taking additional medication not prescribed by the doctor. An example of errors of purpose is when a patient takes medication for the wrong reason. Other types of errors include not taking the medication, taking the wrong dosage, and taking medications at the wrong time and sequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the EEG waveform with the slowest frequency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the EEG waveform with the slowest frequency?

      Your Answer: Gamma

      Correct Answer: Delta

      Explanation:

      EEG Waveform Frequencies

      Delta waves have the lowest frequency among the EEG waveforms, ranging from 0.5 to 4 Hz. Theta waves follow with a frequency range of 4 to 8 Hz, while alpha waves have a frequency range of 8 to 14 Hz. Beta waves have a frequency range of 14 to 32 Hz, and gamma waves have a frequency range of 32 to 48+ Hz. In a normal awake adult EEG, alpha waves are the most prominent waveform.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of depression is exhibiting symptoms consistent with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of depression is exhibiting symptoms consistent with serotonin syndrome after a recent adjustment to her medication regimen. She has been taking 20 mg of sertraline daily for the past six months. What modification to her medication is most likely responsible for the onset of the syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reduction of fluoxetine by 20 mg

      Correct Answer: Commencement of sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine can cause a serotonin syndrome when combined with sumatriptan due to their structural similarity and shared 5HT agonist properties. Agomelatine does not affect serotonin levels. Reboxetine works by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. To decrease the risk of serotonin syndrome, the dosage of fluoxetine can be reduced by 20 mg. Changing the form of fluoxetine to a liquid form would not significantly alter its bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old patient presents with gait instability, urinary incontinence, and memory impairment. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient presents with gait instability, urinary incontinence, and memory impairment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      232.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?

      Your Answer: Locus of control

      Correct Answer: Psychoticism

      Explanation:

      Eysenck’s classification system consisted of three dimensions: Psychoticism, Neuroticism, and Introversion-extraversion. Despite its theoretical appeal, it has not been widely utilized, possibly due to challenges in its practical application in clinical settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man is admitted to hospital experiencing accusatory auditory hallucinations and feelings...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is admitted to hospital experiencing accusatory auditory hallucinations and feelings of persecution. During assessment by a psychiatrist, he begins to describe early experiences of childhood trauma but is dismissed by the doctor who tells him that these experiences are false memories. This leaves him feeling frustrated and determined to become a mental health professional himself to prove the psychiatrist wrong.

      Over the next decade, he completes his training as a licensed therapist. Despite continuing to experience auditory hallucinations, he has learned to manage them and even finds them helpful in his work with clients. He chooses not to take antipsychotic medication due to the sedating side effects he has experienced in the past. Drawing on his personal experience, he is able to provide empathetic support to his clients during times of distress.

      What is a possible account of his personal experience with mental illness?

      Your Answer: Chronic psychosis

      Correct Answer: Personal recovery

      Explanation:

      The concept of recovery in mental disorder goes beyond symptom resolution and focuses on developing a rewarding and meaningful life while accepting the impact of mental distress on the self. Clinical remission, on the other hand, refers to the cessation of symptoms and is often measured through clinical outcome scales. Chronic psychosis is the ongoing experience of psychotic symptoms. Recovery in mental disorder is a rephrasing of the conventional medical definition of remission and recognizes the need for a holistic approach to treatment while still involving clinicians and allied professionals. For further reading, Anthony’s Recovery From Mental Illness and Davidson and Roe’s Recovery from versus recovery in serious mental illness offer valuable insights.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A child in the hospital is experiencing tactile hallucinations during alcohol withdrawal. What...

    Incorrect

    • A child in the hospital is experiencing tactile hallucinations during alcohol withdrawal. What is the term used to describe this sensation?

      Your Answer: Lilliputian hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Formication

      Explanation:

      The sensation of insects crawling on of under the skin is known as formication and is often linked to alcohol withdrawal of delirium. Briquet’s syndrome is a type of somatisation disorder. Jamais vu is a phenomenon where a person recognizes a situation but feels unfamiliar with it, which can be a normal experience. Lilliputian hallucinations, which involve seeing miniature people of animals, may be a symptom of temporal lobe epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      69.3
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  • Question 29 - A mutation in the SNCA gene that codes for alpha-synuclein has been associated...

    Incorrect

    • A mutation in the SNCA gene that codes for alpha-synuclein has been associated with the onset of what condition?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Genetic Contributors to Parkinson’s Disease

      Genetic contributors to Parkinson’s disease can range from highly penetrant DNA variants to variants that individually increase the lifetime risk of the disease. These genetic risks are often divided into rare DNA variants with high effect sizes, typically associated with familial Parkinson’s disease, and more common, smaller effect variants, usually identified in sporadic cases. While rare variants in over 20 genes have been reported to cause Parkinson’s disease, most cases are idiopathic.

      One gene implicated in Parkinson’s disease is SNCA, which codes for alpha-synuclein. Autosomal dominant mutations of SNCA have been identified in several families with inherited Parkinson’s disease. Mutant forms of alpha-synuclein aggregate and induce other proteins to incorporate into the aggregate, forming Lewy bodies, which are similar to the beta-amyloid plaques found in Alzheimer’s patients. Another gene implicated in Parkinson’s disease is the Parkin gene.

      It is important to note that the known genes responsible for Parkinson’s disease are responsible for a minority of cases, with the majority being sporadic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      113.3
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  • Question 30 - What is the most common subtype of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) that is responsible...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common subtype of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) that is responsible for the majority of cases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: sCJDMM1 and sCJDMV1

      Explanation:

      CJD has several subtypes, including familial (fCJD), iatrogenic (iCJD), sporadic (sCJD), and new variant (vCJD). The most common subtype is sCJD, which makes up 85% of cases. sCJD can be further classified based on the MV polymorphisms at codon 129 of the PRNP gene, with sCJDMM1 and sCJDMV1 being the most prevalent subtypes. fCJD is the most common subtype after sCJD, while vCJD and iCJD are rare and caused by consuming contaminated food of tissue contamination from other humans, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (1/5) 20%
Classification And Assessment (1/3) 33%
Psychological Development (0/1) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (0/4) 0%
Neurosciences (4/7) 57%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (3/4) 75%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/2) 50%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Passmed