-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia?
Your Answer: Long-term corticosteroid use
Correct Answer: Ascaris
Explanation:Eosinophilia can be idiopathic (primary) or, more commonly, secondary to another disease. In the Western World, allergic or atopic diseases are the most common causes, especially those of the respiratory or integumentary systems. In the developing world, parasites are the most common cause e.g. Ascaris
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which vitamin plays a major role in the metabolism of many amino acids?
Your Answer: Vitamin B6
Explanation:Vitamin B6 is part of the vitamin B group, and its active form, pyridoxal 5′-phosphate (PLP) serves as a coenzyme in many enzyme reactions in amino acid, glucose, and lipid metabolism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?
Your Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function?
Your Answer: Promotion of inflammation
Explanation:Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that has a wide variety of functions. It can cause cytolysis of certain tumour cell lines; it is involved in the induction of cachexia; it is a potent pyrogen, causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion; it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation under certain conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Question 6
Correct
-
HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach
Your Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Explanation:Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Co-proxamol
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which are:
Your Answer: Diploid
Explanation:Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new diploid nuclei.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?
Your Answer: Aspartate
Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate
Explanation:Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:
Your Answer: The addition of clavulanic acid improves the spectrum to include coagulase-negative staphylococci
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin
Explanation:β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Where in the gastrointestinal tract are valvulae conniventes?
Your Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:The circular folds (valves of Kerckring or valvulae conniventes) are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme
Your Answer: Adenylate cyclase
Explanation:Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by adenylate cyclase located on the inner side of the plasma membrane and anchored at various locations in the interior of the cell.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the:
Your Answer: Ventrolateral tract
Correct Answer: Neospinothalamic tract
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract is an ascending or a sensory tract, responsible for transmission of pain and temperature. The neospinothalamic tract is responsible for fast pain or discriminative pain whereas the palaeospinothalamic tract is responsible for transmission of slow pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?
Your Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning
Explanation:The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma). Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Café-au-lait spots are hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular.
Causes include:
- Neurofibromatosis type I
- McCune–Albright syndrome
- Legius syndrome
- Tuberous sclerosis
- Fanconi anaemia
- Idiopathic
- Ataxia-telangiectasia
- Basal cell nevus syndrome
- Benign congenital skin lesion
- Bloom syndrome
- Chediak-Higashi syndrome
- Congenital nevus
- Gaucher disease
- Hunter syndrome
- Maffucci syndrome
- Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
- Noonan syndrome
- Pulmonary Stenosis
- Silver–Russell syndrome
- Watson syndrome
- Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.
Your Answer: Adenolymphoma
Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
Corticospinal tracts are located in the ___ of the white matter.
Your Answer: Anterior and lateral funiculi
Explanation:The corticospinal tract is a descending or a motor tract which projects nerve fibers from the cortex of the cerebrum down to different levels of the spinal cord. The descending corticospinal tract descends from the origin, through the corona radiata, posterior half of the lateral ventricle, and enters the midbrain through the cerebral peduncle. In the medulla they form the medullary pyramids on either side of midline as lateral and anterior fibers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is pulse pressure?
Your Answer: Average pressure throughout the cardiac cycle
Correct Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
Explanation:The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of the following?
Your Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase
Correct Answer: B 12
Explanation:MTR, also known as methionine synthase, is a methyltransferase enzyme, which uses the Vitamin B12 to transfer a methyl group from 5-methyltetrahydrofolate to homocysteine, thereby generating tetrahydrofolate (THF) and methionine. This functionality is lost in vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in an increased homocysteine level and the trapping of folate as 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate, from which THF (the active form of folate) cannot be recovered. THF plays an important role in DNA synthesis so reduced availability of THF results in ineffective production of cells with rapid turnover, in particular red blood cells, and also intestinal wall cells which are responsible for absorption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?
Your Answer: Corticotrope
Correct Answer: Somatotroph
Explanation:Somatotroph cells are responsible for the production of growth hormone. Somatotrophs occupy nearly 40% of the total surface area of the anterior pituitary, and they are acidophilic in nature.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves:
Your Answer: Increase in heart rate base of inhibition of the vagal cardiac motor neurons
Correct Answer: Short term regulation of systemic blood pressure
Explanation:Baroreceptors are found in the heart and the blood vessels. They are the carotid sinus and the aortic arch receptors and respond to the minute to minute change in the blood pressure i.e. a change in the pulsatile pressure and not to a change in the mean arterial pressure. If the pulse pressure decreases, the rate of firing of the receptors decreases, stimulating an increase in the heart rate and blood pressure. Mechanisms that regulate the long term blood pressure control include the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
The intestine is lined by:
Your Answer: Simple columnar epithelium
Explanation:In the small intestine, epithelium is simple columnar and specialised for absorption. The epithelium is arranged into villi, creating a brush border and increasing the area for absorption. The epithelium is simple columnar with microvilli.In the colon, epithelium is simple columnar and without villi. Goblet cells, which secrete mucous, are also present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…
Your Answer: Increases towards the centre
Correct Answer: Reduces towards the centre
Explanation:Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following transporters is involved in facilitated diffusion?
Your Answer: Na+/Ca2+ antiport
Correct Answer: GLUT2
Explanation:GLUT 2 is a bidirectional transporter, allowing glucose to flow in 2 directions via facilitated diffusion. Is expressed by renal tubular cells, liver cells and pancreatic beta cells. It is also present in the basolateral membrane of the small intestine epithelium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found?
Your Answer: Situated in the 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
Explanation:The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?
Your Answer: Chloride/bicarbonate exchanger
Correct Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase
Explanation:The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.
Your Answer: Stem cells
Correct Answer: Germ cells
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following antibiotics is safest to use in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics that should be avoided in pregnancy are included in the mnemonic: Countless SAFe Moms Take Really Good Care -Clarithromycin, Sulphonamides, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Tetracyclines, Ribavirin, Griseofulvin, Chloramphenicol
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
